AIBE 20 (2025) Official Question Paper With Complete AIBE answer key 2025 – All 100 Questions With Detailed Solutions

AIBE answer key 2025 is critical for every law graduate preparing for the All India Bar Examination. Below, you’ll find all 100 official AIBE 20 questions with each option, the correct answer, and a brief explanation referencing relevant provisions of law. Avail Full strategy here.

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Can the Wife Inherit Any Property After Killing Her Husband?

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 1

The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are:
I. Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.
II. Husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
III. Husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years.
IV. Husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year.

Select the correct answer:
(A) III and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) None of these

AIBE answer key 2025:  (D) None of these

Explanation:
Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 lists these four grounds as valid reasons for dissolution of marriage by a Muslim woman. Each provision is intended to ensure protection and justice to women in marital disputes.
Also read Can the Wife Inherit Any Property After Killing Her Husband?

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 2

As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, “intermediary” means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes:
I. Telecom service providers
II. Search engines
III. Cyber cafes
IV. Online-auction sites

Select the correct answer:
(A) I and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) I, II, III and IV

Explanation:
Section 2(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000, defines “intermediary” to cover all above options, broadening the net of liability and duties these entities have under the law.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 3

Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable?
(A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
(B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.
(C) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9.
(D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.

Explanation:
Section 37 lays out specific orders that can be appealed. Order under Section 17 (interim measure) does not fall in appealable orders. This protects summary efficiency in arbitration proceedings.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 4

Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of:
(A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.
(B) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.
(C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.
(D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.

Explanation:
Section 9A specifically mentions the range (Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.) for Bar Council Legal Aid Committee membership. This ensures effective and diverse representation.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 5

Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 37
(D) Section 38

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Section 36

Explanation:
Section 36 endows the Bar Council of India with appellate disciplinary powers for advocates, ensuring accountability and professional standards.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 6

Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer:
List I:
i. Act of God
ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria)
iii. Statutory Authority
iv. Necessity

List II:

1. Vaughan v Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H & N 679
2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55
3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1
4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205

Codes:
(A) i-1; ii-2; iii-3; iv-4
(B) i-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1
(C) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
(D) i-4; ii-1; iii-3; iv-2

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2

Explanation:
Tort cases like Nichols v. Marsland (Act of God), Hall v. Brooklands (Consent), Vaughan v Taff Vale (Statutory Authority), Kirk v Gregory (Necessity) establish fundamental principles applied in Indian law.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 7

The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:
(A) a Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed
(B) a Chairperson and five other members
(C) a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed
(D) a Chairperson and ten other members

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed

Explanation:
Section 3(2) mandates council composition with flexibility, allowing for greater inclusivity or limitation based on government rules.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 8

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
(A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845
(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845

Explanation:
The Preamble’s legal standing was first interpreted in Berubari’s case but evolved subsequently, e.g., Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills establishing its value for constitutional interpretation.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 9

Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 251
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 255

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Article 253

Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to legislate for giving effect to treaties, international agreements and conventions, even if such matters fall in State List.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 10

In which of the following judgments was the issue of ‘right to privacy’ dealt with by the Supreme Court of India?
I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295)
II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568)
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)

(A) II, III and IV
(B) II and III
(C) Only III
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) I, II, III and IV

Explanation:
‘Right to privacy’ has evolved through these cases, culminating in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017) where SC declared it a fundamental right under Article 21.

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AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 11

Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India?
(A) Executive action of the Union of India
(B) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation
(C) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament
(D) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 12

The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly. Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as ‘judicial precedent’?
(A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment
(B) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment
(C) No, because it is not pronounced in open court
(D) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 13

In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?
(A) Power to issue the writ of mandamus
(B) Power to issue the writ of prohibition
(C) Inherent power
(D) Residuary power

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Inherent power

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 14

The Supreme Court of India has declared that ‘Right to Information’ is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 19(1)(b), Constitution of India
(B) Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India
(D) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 15

Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of ‘Validation of certain Acts & Regulations’?
(A) Schedule IX
(B) Schedule III
(C) Schedule V
(D) Schedule X

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Schedule IX

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India:
I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court.
II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted.
III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope.

Select the correct answer:
(A) I is false.
(B) II is false.
(C) III is false.
(D) All Statements are true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) All Statements are true.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 17

By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?
(A) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.
(B) Lower Judiciary has to complain about its contempt to the Supreme Court of India.
(C) Lower Judiciary can itself punish the contemnor for having caused its contempt.
(D) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls.

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 18

The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for:
(A) threatening judges and use of abusive language during proceedings.
(B) filing false affidavits and making reckless allegations against judges.
(C) interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness.
(D) circulating scandalous pamphlets against a sitting Chief Justice.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 19

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I:
i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages
ii. Punishment of bigamy
iii. Judicial separation
iv. Voidable marriages

List II:

1. Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
2. Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
3. Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
4. Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Codes:
(A) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
(B) i-4; ii-3; iii-2; iv-1
(C) i-4; ii-3; iii-1; iv-2
(D) i-1; ii-2; iii-4; iv-3

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) i-4; ii-3; iii-1; iv-2

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 20

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties?
(A) The creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt
(B) The debtor’s family becomes liable for the unpaid amount
(C) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution
(D) The entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 21

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff?
(A) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff
(B) When the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff
(C) When the property is held as lessee or sub-tenant of the plaintiff
(D) When the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff

Reasoning: Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 provides that a person in possession of movable property as an agent or trustee of another may be compelled to deliver it to the person entitled to it. This is because the possession is derivative and not absolute ownership. The defendant holds the property in a fiduciary capacity and lacks proprietary interest, making delivery mandatory when demanded by the true owner.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 8, Specific Relief Act, 1963 – “Specific performance of contracts relating to movables” – specifically deals with delivery of movable property held in agent or trustee capacity.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 22

Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States.
Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to “High Court” in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals.

In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Both the Statements are true

Reasoning: Section 3 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 establishes that a Joint Administrative Tribunal created for two or more States has the same jurisdiction and powers as a single-State tribunal. Additionally, Section 21 grants contempt powers to Tribunals, equating them with High Courts for contempt purposes. Both statements accurately reflect statutory provisions designed to strengthen administrative adjudication.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 3 (Constitution of Administrative Tribunals) and Section 21 (Contempt Powers) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 – These sections establish the jurisdiction, powers, and contempt authority of Administrative Tribunals.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 23

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Reasoning: Article 109 of the Indian Constitution clearly defines Money Bills. Article 109(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced except on the recommendation of the President, and it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Article 109(3) provides that the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations within 14 days. If recommendations are not accepted by the Lok Sabha, the Bill is deemed passed. The Reason correctly explains why Money Bills can only originate in the Lok Sabha – the constitutional supremacy of the lower house in fiscal matters.

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 109, Constitution of India – Defines Money Bills, their introduction, and procedure. Article 110 defines what constitutes a Money Bill for purposes of Article 109.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 24

A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance?
(A) ₹25,000
(B) ₹50,000
(C) ₹75,000
(D) ₹1,00,000

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) ₹50,000

Reasoning: Section 11 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates that a company must file a declaration of commencement of business with the Registrar before commencing business activities. Section 11(4) specifically prescribes the penalty for failure to comply with this requirement. The penalty amount of ₹50,000 is the statutory prescribed amount under the Act, designed to ensure compliance with corporate governance norms and investor protection mechanisms.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 11, Companies Act, 2013 – Declaration of Commencement of Business. Section 11(4) specifies the penalty of ₹50,000 for non-compliance with filing the declaration of commencement.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 25

If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?
(A) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term
(B) By applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences
(C) By leaving the choice of punishment to the prosecuting authority
(D) By suspending the punishment until further clarification is made

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term

Reasoning: Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code addresses situations where it is uncertain which of several offences has been committed. The section mandates that when there is doubt, the person can only be punished for the offence carrying the lowest prescribed punishment. This principle embodies the doctrine of “in dubio mitius” (in case of doubt, choose the milder course), a fundamental principle of criminal jurisprudence ensuring that ambiguity in criminal liability is resolved in favour of the accused. This protects individuals from excessive punishment when culpability cannot be clearly established.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 72, Indian Penal Code – “Punishment for act from which offence has resulted, but which neither is nor is believed by offender to be offence.” The section provides that if the act amounts to one of several offences, the offender shall be punished for the one carrying the lowest prescribed punishment.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 26

Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is:
(A) valid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice.
(B) invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months.
(C) valid, since the adolescent is given a full day of rest every week.
(D) invalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months.

Reasoning: The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 protects young workers from exploitation. The Act provides strict safeguards regarding weekly holidays for adolescents employed in hazardous or non-hazardous work. The law mandates that once a weekly holiday is fixed for an adolescent, it cannot be changed before the completion of three months from the date of the first holiday. This provision ensures stability and prevents arbitrary changes that could disrupt the adolescent’s routine and educational obligations. The notice alone is insufficient; the three-month period is mandatory.

Relevant Legal Clause: Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 – Section 4 and Schedule provisions regarding weekly holidays. The Act stipulates that weekly holidays cannot be altered within three months of being fixed.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 27

Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
(A) A person who purchases a refrigerator on instalments for home use.
(B) A person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use.
(C) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose.
(D) A person who uses furniture bought by a relative with the latter’s consent.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose.

Reasoning: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a “consumer” as any person who buys goods or services for personal consumption, family use, or household purposes. However, a critical distinction is made: persons purchasing goods for commercial purposes, resale, or profit-making activities are excluded from the definition of consumer. This distinction separates commercial transactions from consumer transactions. Section 2(7) of the Act explicitly states that a consumer does not include a person who buys goods for commercial purposes or resale. The exemption protects commercial businesses from consumer protection provisions meant for individual end-users.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 2(7), Consumer Protection Act, 2019 – Definition of Consumer. It states that a consumer is a person who buys goods primarily for personal consumption, family use, or household purposes, but excludes persons purchasing for resale or commercial purposes.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 28

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death.
Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Reasoning: Article 72 of the Constitution grants the President pardoning powers including granting pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, suspension, and commutation of sentences in cases of Court Martial offences and death sentences. The Assertion is accurate. However, the Reason is incorrect. Article 161 provides similar pardoning powers to Governors for offences under State law. The Presidential power under Article 72 does not override or nullify gubernatorial power; both powers operate within their respective jurisdictions. Presidential power applies to central offences and Court Martial cases, while gubernatorial power applies to State offences. They coexist rather than one overriding the other.

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 72, Constitution of India – Grants the President power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, suspension, and commutation of sentences in cases of Court Martial offences and death sentences. Also see Article 161 for similar gubernatorial powers.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 29

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents.

Conclusions:
I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence.
II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent’s conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow

Reasoning: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides a comprehensive definition of domestic violence encompassing physical, sexual, verbal, emotional, and economic abuse. Section 18 and 19 of the Act empower Magistrates to issue protection orders with various restrictions. The scope includes preventing contact, alienating assets, and causing psychological or financial harm. Conclusion I is valid because the Act protects against all forms of abuse, not just physical. Conclusion II is valid because Magistrates possess broad discretionary powers under Section 18(1) to issue protection orders “as the Magistrate deems fit.” Both conclusions accurately reflect the statutory scheme.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 2(a) and Section 3, Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 – Defines domestic violence broadly. Section 18 and 19 – Empower Magistrates to issue protection orders with various restrictions and safeguards.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 30

According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license?
(A) The place where the applicant has family ancestral property.
(B) The place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year.
(C) The place where the applicant votes in local body elections.
(D) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.

Reasoning: The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 establishes a clear framework for licensing authority jurisdiction based on the applicant’s ordinary residence or place of business. Section 9 of the Act provides that a driving license shall be issued by the licensing authority of the State in which the applicant ordinarily resides. This provision ensures that licensing authority has territorial and administrative oversight over drivers in their jurisdiction, facilitating enforcement of traffic regulations and maintaining updated records. Ordinary residence is the connecting factor, not ancestral property, bank accounts, or voting location, which are unstable indicators for regulatory jurisdiction.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 9, Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 – Prescribes procedures for grant of driving licenses. It specifies that the licensing authority has jurisdiction based on the applicant’s ordinary residence or place of business within the State.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 31

If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?
(A) Ten years of imprisonment
(B) Twenty years of imprisonment
(C) Forty years of imprisonment
(D) Fifty years of imprisonment

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Twenty years of imprisonment

Reasoning: Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code addresses the remission of sentences.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 57, Indian Penal Code – Deals with remission of sentence by President or Governor. The forty-year equivalency for life imprisonment is applied for calculating remission eligibility under this section.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 32

According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?
(A) Voluntary resignation from the post by the employee.
(B) Dismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work.
(C) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease.
(D) Transfer of the employee to another department within the same organization.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease.

Reasoning: The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 mandates that an employee must complete five years of continuous service to receive gratuity. However, Section 4(1) provides important exceptions. If an employee dies during service or becomes disabled (whether due to accident or occupational disease), gratuity becomes payable regardless of service period. This humanitarian provision ensures that employees or their families are not deprived of gratuity benefits due to circumstances beyond their control. The exception reflects the principle that gratuity is both a retirement benefit and a social security measure protecting workers and their families in hardship situations.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 4, Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 – Eligibility for gratuity. Section 4(1) provides that gratuity is payable upon death, disablement, or after five years of continuous service, without requiring the full five-year period for death or disablement cases.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 33

If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
(A) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning
(B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty
(C) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order
(D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order

Reasoning: Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provides a crucial protection for officials acting under orders from courts, even if those orders are later declared invalid. The section states that nothing is an offence if done by a person who is compelled by law to do it, or who is acting under a court order. The critical requirement is that the person acts in good faith, believing the order to be valid. A bailiff executing an eviction order from a court, even if the court lacked jurisdiction, is protected from criminal liability if he acted in good faith without knowledge of the jurisdictional defect. This provision protects judicial officers and court-appointed officials from criminal prosecution for executing what appeared to be valid court orders.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 78, Indian Penal Code – “Act of a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law.” This section provides immunity for acts done under legal compulsion or court orders, provided they are done in good faith.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 34

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
(A) Seven
(B) Ten
(C) Fourteen
(D) Twenty-one

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Fourteen

Reasoning: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 reforms criminal procedure with enhanced human rights protections. Solitary confinement is a harsh form of punishment that can cause psychological harm. The BNS 2023 limits solitary confinement to a maximum of fourteen consecutive days at any one time to prevent psychological torture and maintain human dignity. This provision replaces previous practice and aligns Indian law with international standards on prison discipline. After fourteen days, the confined prisoner must be released back to general prison population before another solitary confinement period can begin. This safeguard ensures that even when punishment is necessary, it does not become inhumane or cruel.

Relevant Legal Clause: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 – Section on prison discipline. The Act prescribes a maximum of fourteen consecutive days for solitary confinement, reflecting enhanced protections against cruel punishment.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 35

According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
(A) Twenty-five thousand rupees
(B) Fifty thousand rupees
(C) One lakh rupees
(D) Seventy-five thousand rupees

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Fifty thousand rupees ( Now it is 5 lakhs )

Reasoning: The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 established the concept of no-fault liability to protect accident victims without requiring proof of driver negligence. Section 163 or the relevant compensation provisions specify that in cases of death caused by motor vehicle accidents, a fixed amount of one lakh rupees is payable as compensation regardless of fault. This no-fault compensation scheme ensures rapid relief to victim families without prolonged litigation. The fixed amount provides certainty and prevents disputes over damage quantification. This social welfare measure prioritizes victim protection and recognizes the inherent danger of motor vehicles on public roads.

Relevant Legal Clause: Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 – Section 163 (or related compensation sections). The Act provides for no-fault compensation of one lakh rupees in death cases arising from motor vehicle accidents.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 36

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption.
Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee’s fault.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Reasoning: The assertion is incorrect because the concept of “continuous service” under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 does not demand an unbroken 365 days of actual work. The Act recognizes that employment may be interrupted by circumstances beyond the employee’s control. The reason correctly states that continuous service includes interruptions such as sickness, accident, authorized leave, lay-off, strike or lock-out not due to the employee’s fault. Hence, the assertion is false but the reason is true.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 2A (earlier Section 3 in older commentaries), Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 – Definition of continuous service – includes interruptions due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike or lock-out and not due to employee’s fault.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 37

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years.
Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender.

In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Only Statement 2 is true

Reasoning: Here is a brief and clear reasoning:

Statement 2 is true because Section 216A IPC provides that a husband or wife is exempt from punishment for harbouring each other.

Statement 1 is false because under Section 216 IPC, if the main offence is punishable up to 3 years, the harbourer can be punished only up to 3 years, not 7 years. The 7-year punishment applies only when the main offence is punishable with life imprisonment or up to 10 years.

Relevant Legal Clauses:

• Section 216, Indian Penal Code – Harbouring offender who has escaped from custody or whose apprehension has been ordered.
• Section 216A, Indian Penal Code – Penalty for harbouring robbers or dacoits and exception for husband and wife (recognized exception for spousal harbouring).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 38

If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years’ imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Ten years
(D) Three years

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Seven years.

Reasoning: Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) (equivalent to the repealed Section 511 of the IPC) provides the general rule for punishing the attempt to commit an offence where the BNS does not specifically prescribe a punishment for that attempt.

The rule states that the punishment for the attempt is imprisonment for a term which may extend to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the original offence.

Therefore, the maximum punishment for the attempt is five years.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 62, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 – Punishment for attempt to commit an offence.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 39

A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 125
(C) Section 302
(D) Section 482

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Section 27.

Reasoning: Section 27 CrPC specifically deals with jurisdiction in the case of juveniles. It provides that any offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, committed by a person who is under the age of 16 years (read harmoniously now with Juvenile Justice laws), may be tried by the Chief Judicial Magistrate, or by any Court specially empowered under the Children Act or other relevant law. Thus, where a 14-year-old is involved and the offence is not punishable with death or life imprisonment, Section 27 CrPC applies and points towards juvenile/special procedures.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 27, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Jurisdiction in the case of juveniles.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 40

Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 60

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) 30.

Reasoning: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), which replaces the CrPC, formally incorporates and refines the concept of plea bargaining. Section 290(1) provides that an accused who wishes to avail plea bargaining must file the application within 30 days from the date on which the charge is framed. The fixed time window ensures that plea bargaining is invoked at an early stage of the trial, avoiding wastage of judicial time and resources.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 290(1), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 – Application for plea bargaining – time limit.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 41

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
(A) One year
(B) Two months
(C) Four months
(D) Six months

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Two months

Reasoning: The duration of simple imprisonment that can be awarded in default of payment of a fine is governed by Section 8(5)(a) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). This section lays down a specific scale for default imprisonment when the offense is punishable with only fine or community service, or where the default imprisonment is simple.²

The relevant scale for the amount of fine is:

Since the fine amount is ₹4,000, which does not exceed ₹5,000, the maximum simple imprisonment that can be imposed in default of payment is two months.³

Note: This default imprisonment ends immediately upon the fine being paid or legally levied.⁴

Relevant Legal Clause: Provisions on default of payment of fine in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 – Imprisonment in default of fine.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 42

According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) 7 years.

Reasoning: Section 18 BNSS 2023, like its predecessor in CrPC, prescribes the essential qualification for appointment as Public Prosecutor/Additional Public Prosecutor. It requires that the person must have practiced as an advocate for not less than seven years. The rationale is that prosecution work involves complex criminal advocacy, ethical responsibility and public interest considerations, which demand substantial courtroom experience.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 18, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 – Appointment of Public Prosecutors – qualification.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 43

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
(A) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly
(B) Only when they form part of a dying declaration
(C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact
(D) When they are part of an admission made in writing

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact.

Reasoning: The Evidence Act makes certain categories of facts relevant because of their logical probative value. Facts which are inconsistent with a fact in issue or with some other relevant fact may become relevant because they cast doubt on or corroborate existing evidence. This is the logic behind provisions dealing with inconsistent facts and impeaching credit. Thus, even though a fact may not be directly in issue, its inconsistency with a main fact in issue can make it legally relevant.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 11, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant (facts inconsistent with facts in issue or relevant facts). (Note: the earlier reference to 142 in raw text was interpretative – doctrinally Section 11 is the direct provision).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 44

What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) The evidence must have been recorded in the presence of a jury.
(B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest.
(C) The evidence must have been published in a government gazette.
(D) The evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest.

Reasoning: Section 33 Evidence Act allows evidence given by a witness in a previous judicial proceeding to be used in a later proceeding under certain conditions. A key condition is that the earlier proceeding was between the same parties, or parties claiming under them, and that the adverse party had the right and opportunity to cross-examine that witness. This ensures fairness – no party is bound by earlier testimony unless they had a chance to challenge it.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 33, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – Relevancy of certain evidence for subsequent proceeding.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 45

During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
(A) Draft agreements between individuals
(B) Personal diaries of government officials
(C) Internal notes of a private company
(D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers.

Reasoning: Public documents enjoy a special evidentiary status under the Evidence Act. Section 74 defines “public documents” to include documents forming the acts, or records of the acts, of sovereign authorities, official bodies and tribunals, and public officers (legislative, judicial and executive). Judicial orders, decrees, government notifications and official registers fall in this category. Such documents may be proved by certified copies, without calling the official who made them.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 74, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – Public documents.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 46

Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended
(B) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit
(C) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists
(D) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists.

Reasoning: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces the Indian Evidence Act but substantially retains the principle earlier in Section 10. Acts, things said or writings by one conspirator are relevant against the others only if there is reasonable ground, independently of those statements, to believe that a conspiracy existed. This safeguard prevents the misuse of hearsay by first requiring prima facie proof of conspiracy before applying the exception.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section corresponding to former Section 10, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 – Things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 47

As per Section 30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years’ imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 6 months
(D) 3 months

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) 6 months.

Reasoning in Brief (Section 30, CrPC)

The maximum term of imprisonment a Magistrate can impose in default of fine, when a substantive sentence of imprisonment has already been awarded, is governed by Section 30(1), Proviso (b) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

1. Magistrate’s Power (Section 29): A Judicial Magistrate First Class (JMFC) is competent to pass a sentence of imprisonment up to three years (Section 29(2)).
2. The Substantive Sentence: The Magistrate has already awarded a substantive sentence of 2 years.
3. The Limit: The default imprisonment shall not exceed one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict as punishment for the offence (i.e., the maximum sentence he could have awarded for the offence itself, which is 3 years for a JMFC).

However, in this specific case, the Magistrate has already given a substantive sentence of 2 years. The correct interpretation of Section 30(1)(b) is that the default sentence cannot exceed one-fourth of the substantive sentence imposed unless the substantive sentence is less than the limit fixed by the IPC for the offence.

Crucially, Section 30 CrPC also refers to the limits imposed by Sections 65 and 67 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC, now BNS), which set a ceiling on default imprisonment.

• IPC Section 65 (General Limit): Where imprisonment and fine are awarded, the default imprisonment shall not exceed one-fourth of the maximum imprisonment fixed for the offence. Assuming a general offence with a maximum of 3 years (Magistrate’s power), 1/4th is 9 months.
• IPC Section 67 (Fine Only): This sets the maximum default limits for fines alone.

Given the standard legal precedent and common exam questions on Section 30, the most appropriate limit applied is generally related to the Magistrate’s maximum sentencing power (3 years for JMFC) or a specific limit where the substantive sentence is less.

Since the Magistrate has awarded a 2-year substantive sentence, and 6 months is one of the options, it represents a common fraction limit. The most restrictive limit that is available in the options is 6 months, which is a plausible answer, often arising when the Magistrate’s power is considered to be $3 \text{ years}$ and the general limit on default imprisonment for lower courts is considered. Without knowing the exact maximum punishment for the offence, 6 months is the most likely intended answer as it falls within the absolute $9 \text{-month}$ limit and is a recognized ceiling for default imprisonment in many contexts.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 48

As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?
(A) Article 39
(B) Article 41
(C) Article 47
(D) Article 45

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Article 45.

Reasoning: The 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002 introduced Article 21A (Right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years) and simultaneously amended Article 45. Originally, Article 45 spoke of free and compulsory education up to age 14; post‑amendment it now directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children below the age of six years. Thus, the directive principle for sub‑6 children is housed in Article 45.

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 45, Constitution of India (as amended by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 49

According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
(A) Only the High Court exercising writ jurisdiction
(B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal
(C) The District Registrar of Property Records
(D) The Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal.

Reasoning: Under the scheme of CPC, once a decree is appealed, the appellate court has the power to stay execution on such terms as it deems fit (for example, by directing the decree-holder to furnish security). The court which passed the decree acts on directions of the appellate court in execution matters when the decree is under challenge. Hence, it is the appellate court that orders security to be taken or execution to be stayed.

Relevant Legal Clauses:

• Order 41 Rule 5, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Stay of execution by appellate court.
• Section 47 CPC – Questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 50

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee?
(A) Three Judges of the High Court
(B) Two Judges of the High Court
(C) Four Judges of the High Court
(D) Five Judges of the High Court

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Three Judges of the High Court.

Reasoning: The High Court Rule Committee is constituted to frame rules regulating the practice and procedure of civil courts. Under the relevant CPC provisions and High Court Rules, the Committee consists of High Court Judges and other members such as advocates and subordinate judges. The judicial component is typically three Judges of the High Court, ensuring strong judicial control over civil procedure rule‑making.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 122 and related provisions, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Constitution of Rule Committees under High Courts.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 51

According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63?
(A) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees
(B) Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees
(C) Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to three lakh rupees
(D) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees

Reasoning: Penalty under Section 63

Section 63 of The Copyright Act, 1957, deals with the criminal penalty for the offense of infringement of copyright. The provision states that any person who knowingly infringes or abets the infringement of copyright shall be punishable:

• Imprisonment: For a term which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to three years.
• Fine: Which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees (₹2,00,000).

Important Note (Proviso):

The Act includes a proviso allowing the court to impose a lesser sentence (imprisonment less than six months or a fine less than fifty thousand rupees) if the infringement was not made for gain in the course of trade or business and the court records adequate and special reasons in the judgment.

Enhanced Penalty (Section 63A):

It is also worth noting that Section 63A prescribes an enhanced penalty for second and subsequent convictions, where the minimum punishment is higher (imprisonment not less than one year, and fine not less than one lakh rupees). However, the question asks for the ordinary maximum punishment under Section 63, which is three years imprisonment and a two lakh rupees fine.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 63, Copyright Act, 1957 – Offence of infringement of copyright or other rights.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 52

As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?
(A) Article 28(1)
(B) Article 29(1)
(C) Article 30(2)
(D) Article 32

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Article 29(1).

Reasoning: Article 29(1) guarantees that any section of the citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own has the right to conserve the same. This is not confined only to “minorities” in the technical sense but applies to any section of citizens with a distinct linguistic or cultural identity. Therefore, a linguistic community’s right to protect its script and literature is directly traceable to Article 29(1).

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 29(1), Constitution of India – Protection of interests of minorities (language, script and culture).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 53

Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹5,000?
(A) Six weeks
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Six months

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Three months

Reasoning: Scale of Detention (Section 58, CPC)

Section 58 of the CPC provides a clear, graded scale for the maximum period of detention in civil prison for the execution of a money decree:

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 58, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Detention and release.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 54

Which of the following situation falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Decree for ₹1,800, detention up to three months
(B) Decree for ₹3,500, detention up to six weeks
(C) Decree for ₹6,200, detention up to six months
(D) Decree for ₹10,000, detention up to one year

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Decree for ₹3,500, detention up to six weeks

Reasoning: Section 58 of the CPC lays down the maximum period of detention for a Judgment-debtor in a civil prison for the execution of a money decree, based on the amount of the decree:

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 58(1)(b), Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Detention for decrees of higher amounts.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 55

A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?
(A) Thirty days
(B) Fifteen days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Ninety days

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Thirty days.

Reasoning: Order 8 Rule 1 CPC clearly provides that the defendant shall, within 30 days from the date of service of summons, present a written statement of his defence. The court may, for reasons recorded, extend this period (subject to an outer limit as per amendments/judicial interpretation), but the statutory starting point remains 30 days. Hence, for exam purposes, 30 days is the correct answer.

Relevant Legal Clause: Order 8 Rule 1, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Written statement.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 56

How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?
(A) Six years after final determination of the cause
(B) Three years after the institution of the suit
(C) Two years after final determination of the cause
(D) Five years from the date of decree

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Two years after final determination of the cause

Reasoning: The provision governing the address for service of notice is Order VI, Rule 14A of the CPC.

Order VI, Rule 14A(3) stipulates the duration for which the “registered address” remains valid:

“The address furnished in the statement made under sub-rule (1) shall be called the ‘registered address’ of the party, and shall, until duly changed as aforesaid, be deemed to be the address of the party for the purpose of service of all processes in the suit or in any appeal from any decree or order therein made and for a period of two years after the final determination of the cause.”

This provision ensures that processes related to execution, appeals, or revisions can be served on the party at the recorded address for a reasonable period after the main litigation is concluded.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 57

According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
(A) The tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely
(B) The tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings
(C) The tribunal assumes the claim is admitted
(D) The tribunal terminates the proceedings

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) The tribunal terminates the proceedings.

Reasoning: Section 25 addresses the consequences of default by parties. Under Section 25(a), if the claimant fails, without showing sufficient cause, to submit his statement of claim, the arbitral tribunal shall terminate the proceedings. This is because there is nothing to adjudicate in the absence of a statement of claim, and the respondent cannot be kept in perpetual uncertainty.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 25(a), Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – Default of a party.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 58

If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Six months
(D) Three months

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Three months

Reasoning: The question refers to the procedure under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 (SMA) when an objection to the intended marriage is raised.

• Scenario: Section 10 of the SMA deals with the procedure when a marriage officer abroad receives an objection and upholds it. The appeal against the Marriage Officer’s decision upholding the objection lies with the Central Government.
• Time Limit Rule: The general rule for the solemnization time limit in the SMA is found in Section 14, which governs both situations where the initial notice period expires and where an objection is finally settled.

Section 14 (New Notice when marriage not solemnized within three months) states: “Whenever a marriage is not solemnized within three calendar months from— (a) the date on which notice thereof has been given to the Marriage Officer as required by section 5, or (b) where an appeal has been filed under sub-section (2) of section 8 [appeal to District Court] or under sub-section (2) of section 10 [appeal to Central Government], from the date of the decision on such appeal, the notice and all other proceedings arising therefrom shall be void, and a fresh notice shall be required before the parties can lawfully marry.”

Thus, the marriage must be solemnized within three months of the Central Government’s decision on the objection, otherwise, the original notice becomes void, and a new notice is required.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 10, Special Marriage Act, 1954 – Reference to Central Government and time for solemnization.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 59

What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) One year

Reasoning: Penalty for Breach of Protection Order

Section 31(1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, lays down the penalty for the criminal offence of breaching a protection order or interim protection order:

• Offence: A breach of a protection order, or of an interim protection order, by the respondent is an offence under this Act.
• Punishment: The respondent shall be punishable with:
  • Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year.
  • Or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees (₹20,000).
  • Or with both.

The maximum imprisonment is therefore one year.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 31, Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 – Penalty for breach of protection order.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 60

Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 14

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Article 32.

Reasoning: Public Interest Litigations in the Supreme Court are filed as writ petitions invoking Article 32, which guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights. While PIL is a judicial innovation in locus standi, the constitutional hook remains Article 32. Article 226 is for writs before High Courts.

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 32, Constitution of India – Right to constitutional remedies.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 61

Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
(A) Not less than 7 days
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) Not less than 15 days
(D) Not less than 30 days

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Not less than 15 days

Reasoning: The minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector, under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, is Not less than fifteen (15) days.

The correct option is (C).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 62

Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
(A) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(C) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

Reasoning: Section 133 CrPC deals with public nuisance and allows a Magistrate to make conditional orders requiring removal of such nuisance. Any member of the public aggrieved by a public nuisance can move the Magistrate, and the Magistrate can initiate proceedings in public interest. Hence it operates as a type of localised “public interest” mechanism in criminal procedure.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 133, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Conditional order for removal of nuisance.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 63

According to Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:
(A) ₹1,20,000
(B) ₹50,000
(C) ₹5,00,000
(D) ₹10,00,000

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) ₹1,20,000.

Reasoning: Section 44AA prescribes compulsory maintenance of books of account for certain persons carrying on business or profession. Under clause (2)(i), where the income from business or profession exceeds ₹1,20,000 (or the total sales/turnover exceeds a prescribed limit), the assessee is under a statutory duty to keep and maintain such books and documents as may enable the Assessing Officer to compute total income. The exam tests recall of this threshold figure.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 44AA(2)(i), Income-tax Act, 1961 – Maintenance of accounts by certain persons carrying on business or profession.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 64

Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?
(A) When the applicant has filed a request for early examination.
(B) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.
(C) When the patent has already been granted by the Controller.
(D) When the applicant has requested for an extension of time.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.

Reasoning: Normally, patent applications are published after 18 months from the date of filing or priority date. However, Section 35 empowers the Central Government to issue secrecy directions in cases where the invention is relevant for defence purposes or national security. While such a direction is in force, the Controller shall not cause the application or specification to be published. Thus, secrecy directions override the usual publication regime.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 35, Patents Act, 1970 – Secrecy directions relating to inventions relevant for defence purposes.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 65

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette.
Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Reasoning: Sections 95–99 CrPC deal with forfeiture of certain publications. Section 96 allows any person having any interest in the newspaper/book so forfeited to apply to the High Court to set aside the order within two months from publication in the Official Gazette. This makes the assertion true. The reason, however, is false: the constitution of the special bench (number of judges) can vary depending on the rules and strength of the High Court; it is not invariably “exactly three judges” in all cases.

Relevant Legal Clause: Sections 95–99, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Forfeiture of publications and application to High Court.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 66

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person.
Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness.

In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Both the Statements are true.

Reasoning: The new Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam substantially mirrors the principle that admissions are relevant and may generally be proved against, not for, the person who makes them (corresponding to old Section 21 of the Evidence Act). However, there are specific exceptions where an admission may be used on behalf of the maker – notably where the statement relates to that person’s bodily state or mental state, made at or around the relevant time and supported by accompanying conduct. Both statements, therefore, correctly represent the general rule and its exception.

Relevant Legal Principle: Provisions on admissions in Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (corresponding to Sections 17–21 of the old Evidence Act).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 67

Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
(A) House Rent Allowance granted by private companies
(B) Entertainment Allowance granted to government employees
(C) Transport Allowance provided to all salaried persons
(D) Leave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Entertainment Allowance granted to government employees

Reasoning: Section 16 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, deals with deductions from salary income.

Entertainment Allowance Deduction (Section 16(ii))

• This deduction is exclusively available to an employee who is in receipt of salary from the Government.
• The deduction allowed is the least of the following three amounts:
  1. The actual amount of Entertainment Allowance received.
  2. ₹5,000.
  3. One-fifth of his salary (excluding any allowance, benefit, or other perquisite).

Why other options are incorrect:

• (A) House Rent Allowance: Deductions for HRA are allowed under Section 10(13A), not Section 16(ii).
• (C) Transport Allowance: This was deductible under Section 10(14) but has largely been replaced by specific, fixed exemptions (like the exemption for the disabled). It is not deductible under Section 16(ii).
• (D) Leave Travel Allowance (LTA): Exemptions for LTA are allowed under Section 10(5), not Section 16(ii).

Therefore, Entertainment Allowance for government employees is the specific deduction covered by Section 16(ii)

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 16, Income-tax Act, 1961 – Deductions from salaries (including standard/transport allowance in specified periods).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 68

Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction.
Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received.

In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.

Reasoning: Under NI Act, there is a presumption of consideration (Section 118). Absence or failure of consideration can be a defence between immediate parties, but it does not mean that an instrument “creates no obligation” in all cases. In particular, a holder in due course can enforce the instrument even if there was no consideration between prior parties. Thus Statement 1 is false. Statement 2, as framed, is also inaccurate: while partial failure of consideration can be a ground to limit liability between immediate parties, the holder in due course is still entitled to the full amount. The rigid “proportionate only” rule is therefore not correctly stated.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 118 and related provisions, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – Presumptions as to consideration.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 69

In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it.

Conclusions:
I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act.
II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Only Conclusion I follows.

Reasoning: The statement reflects the vicarious liability clause found in many regulatory statutes. Company and persons in charge are deemed guilty, but they can escape liability by proving absence of knowledge or by showing due diligence. Conclusion I correctly states that both company and responsible officers can be liable. Conclusion II is wrong because it ignores the statutory defence of absence of knowledge or due diligence.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 16/17‑type provision (liability of companies) in Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 70

Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 50

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) 30.

Reasoning: Section 24(a) allows a flat deduction of 30% of the “annual value” of a property under the head “Income from House Property” (in respect of let out or deemed to be let out properties). This represents an allowance towards repairs, maintenance, etc., regardless of actual expenditure.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 24(a), Income-tax Act, 1961 – Standard deduction of 30% from annual value.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 71

After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta’s farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case?
(A) Loss due to falling land prices in the market
(B) Loss due to cancellation of tenant agreements
(C) Loss of employment in nearby areas
(D) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process.

Reasoning: Section 23(1) Land Acquisition Act sets out matters to be considered in determining compensation. In addition to market value, the Court may consider damage sustained by the person interested by reason of acquisition, including bona fide diminution of profits between notification and taking of possession due to the acquisition proceedings. Losses like general fall in market prices (A) or local employment loss (C) are not directly compensable under Section 23, while diminution of actual profits from land due to acquisition process is.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 23, Land Acquisition Act, 1894 – Matters to be considered in determining compensation.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 72

According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?
(A) ₹2,000
(B) ₹10,000
(C) ₹5,000
(D) ₹3,000

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) ₹3,000

Reasoning: Section 35A deals with compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences.

1. Purpose: This section allows the court to award costs to compensate a party for the expense and delay caused by the false or vexatious (annoying/harassing) claims or defenses made by the opposite party.
2. Maximum Limit: Section 35A stipulates that the amount of compensatory costs awarded shall not exceed three thousand rupees (₹3,000) or the limits of the Court’s pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is lower.

This provision aims to deter parties from filing baseless litigation or defenses that waste the court’s time and cause hardship to the opposing party.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 35A, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 73

According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?
(A) When the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance
(B) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor
(C) When it is delivered to the office of the proposer party
(D) When the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor.

Reasoning: Section 4 of the Contract Act states that communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put into a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor. For example, once the acceptor posts the letter of acceptance, it is beyond his control and the proposer becomes bound at that moment, even if the letter is delayed or lost.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 4, Indian Contract Act, 1872 – Communication when complete.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 74

Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days’ notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?
(A) Five days’ notice
(B) Fifteen days’ notice
(C) Forty-five days’ notice
(D) Sixty days’ notice

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Fifteen days’ notice

Reasoning: The notice period for termination of leases is governed by Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. This Section distinguishes between two types of leases:

1. Lease for agricultural or manufacturing purposes:
   • This lease is deemed to be a lease from year to year.
   • It requires a six months’ notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy.
2. Lease for any other purpose (like the retail business shop in this scenario):
   • This lease is deemed to be a lease from month to month.
   • It requires a fifteen days’ notice expiring with the end of a month of the tenancy.

Since Rahul’s lease is for a retail business (a purpose other than agriculture or manufacturing) and there is no special contract, it is presumed to be a month-to-month tenancy requiring fifteen days’ notice.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 106, Transfer of Property Act, 1882 – Duration and termination of certain leases (subject to State amendments).

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 75

According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143?
(A) Six months’ imprisonment
(B) Two years’ imprisonment
(C) One year’s imprisonment
(D) Three years’ imprisonment

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) One year’s imprisonment

Reasoning: Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, allows the Judicial Magistrate First Class (JMFC) or the Metropolitan Magistrate (MM) to try all offences punishable under the Act summarily.

Limit on Imprisonment

Note: Even though the maximum punishment for the core offence (cheque dishonour under Section 138) is two years, the Magistrate’s sentencing power is restricted to one year when the case is tried summarily under Section 143. If the Magistrate believes a sentence exceeding one year is warranted, they must convert the summary trial into a summons trial and proceed accordingly.

Section 143(1), Proviso (i) states that in the case of any conviction in a summary trial, it shall be lawful for the Magistrate to pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year and an amount of fine not exceeding five thousand rupees.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 143, Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – Power of Court to try cases summarily.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 76

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties.

Conclusions:
I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.
II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Only Conclusion I follows

Reasoning: The Statement summarizes the requirements of Section 157 (Intimation of DIN to Registrar) and the consequence of non-compliance.

Statement:

1. Requirement (Section 157): Company must furnish the DIN of its Directors to the Registrar within fifteen days of receiving intimation.
2. Consequence: Failure to comply attracts penalties.

Conclusion I: If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.

• Follows. This is directly supported by the last part of the Statement: “Failure to comply attracts penalties.” The company, as the primary entity obligated to furnish the DIN, is subject to the penalty for its non-compliance.

Conclusion II: Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties.

• Does Not Follow. While this is true under the actual penalty provision for Section 157 (which is Section 159 of the Companies Act, 2013), the Statement itself does not mention or allude to the liability of the officers. The Statement only says that “Failure to comply attracts penalties,” without specifying who is penalized—the company, the officers, or both.
• Since Conclusions must be drawn strictly from the given Statement, and the Statement is silent on the officer’s liability, Conclusion II cannot be logically derived from the text provided.

Therefore, only Conclusion I follows from the given Statement.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 157, Companies Act, 2013 – Obligation to furnish DIN to Registrar and penalty for default.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 77

Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest.
Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard.

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Only Statement 1 is true.

Reasoning: Section 19 IT Act allows a Certifying Authority to suspend a Digital Signature Certificate on request of the subscriber or where it is necessary in public interest. So Statement 1 is correct. However, suspension cannot be done arbitrarily or indefinitely without following principles of natural justice. The Act and rules require that the subscriber be given an opportunity of being heard and that suspension be subject to conditions and time limits. Thus Statement 2 is false.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 19, Information Technology Act, 2000 – Suspension of Digital Signature Certificate.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 78

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits ₹15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.

Conclusions:
I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Only Conclusion I follows.

Reasoning: The Act specifically states that an amount of ₹15,000 per rescued child/adolescent shall be credited from the fine and placed in a fund, which is to be deposited/invested and the interest accruing thereon is payable to the child upon attaining majority or as provided. Thus, Conclusion I correctly follows. Conclusion II is incorrect because the legislation does not bar the Government from supplementing the fund out of its own resources; the statement does not conclusively say that no other money can ever be paid in.

Relevant Legal Clause: Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 – Provisions regarding Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 79

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.
Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Reasoning: BNS 2023, like amended IPC, provides for very stringent punishment including death penalty for certain aggravated forms of gang rape (such as on minors or causing persistent vegetative state). So Assertion (A) is true. However, the reason is false: the objective of prescribing death penalty is not merely to render offences non‑bailable, but to proportionately punish heinous conduct and deter such crimes. Non‑bailability of serious sexual offences flows from separate bail classification provisions, not from the death penalty clause itself.

Relevant Legal Clause: Provisions relating to aggravated rape and gang rape in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 80

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.
Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Reasoning: BNSS retains the concept of proclaimed persons and attachment of property previously found in CrPC (Sections 82–83). If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation or satisfies the Court as to cause, the court may release the attached property because the purpose of attachment is coercive (to secure appearance), not punitive (confiscation). Thus both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Relevant Legal Clause: Provisions corresponding to Sections 82–85 CrPC in Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 81

Read the given Statements and choose the correct option.
A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements:
Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications.
Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.

(A) Only Statement 1 is true
(B) Only Statement 2 is true
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Only Statement 1 is true.

Reasoning: Section 7 Arbitration and Conciliation Act requires that an arbitration agreement be in writing. It may be contained in a document signed by the parties or in an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, e‑mails or any other means of telecommunication that provide a record of the agreement. So Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is false because pure conduct alone, without any written record, does not satisfy the statutory requirement of a written arbitration agreement.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 7, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – Arbitration agreement.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 82

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.

Conclusions:
I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Reasoning: Under the Advocates Act, when an interim Special Committee is constituted, it exercises all the functions of the State Bar Council including disciplinary powers. Hence Conclusion I follows. The Act also permits the Bar Council of India to extend the six‑month period for holding elections for recorded reasons, recognising practical difficulties in conducting elections. Hence Conclusion II also follows.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 8A and related provisions, Advocates Act, 1961 – Special Committee for State Bar Councils.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 83

Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property.
Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at ₹2,00,000, subject to conditions.

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) Both the Statements are true.

Reasoning: As discussed earlier, Section 24(a) gives a 30% standard deduction. Section 24(b) allows deduction of interest on borrowed capital used for acquisition, construction, repair, renewal, etc. For self‑occupied property, a ceiling of ₹2,00,000 per year (subject to conditions and period of construction) applies. Both statements properly reflect these provisions.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 24(a) & 24(b), Income-tax Act, 1961 – Deductions from income from house property.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 84

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son.
Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Reasoning: The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 substituted Section 6, declaring that the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu family governed by Mitakshara law shall by birth become a coparcener in her own right, in the same manner as the son. It further provides that she shall have the same rights and be subject to the same liabilities as a son. Thus the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 6, Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (as amended in 2005) – Devolution of interest in coparcenary property; daughter as coparcener.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 85

As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree’s response to a proposal introduces a new term?
(A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
(B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
(C) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
(D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.

Reasoning: Section 7 requires that an acceptance be absolute and unqualified. If the offeree, while purporting to accept, adds or varies terms (however minor), this is not an acceptance but a counter‑offer. A counter‑offer legally terminates the original offer, unless parties revive it.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 7, Indian Contract Act, 1872 – Acceptance must be absolute.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 86

The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
(A) An oral promise by ‘A’ to pay ‘B’ ₹5000 for a service ‘B’ voluntarily rendered to ‘A’ last month.
(B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.
(C) A promise to subscribe ₹1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
(D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.

Reasoning: Section 25 declares agreements without consideration void, but recognizes exceptions. One classic exception is a written and registered agreement made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation. A written and registered settlement by a husband in favour of his wife, reciting natural love and affection, is valid without new consideration. Options (A), (C) and (D) do not fall within the recognized exceptions, unless additional statutory conditions (like past voluntary service at promisor’s desire) are proven.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 25(1), Indian Contract Act, 1872 – Agreement without consideration, when valid.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 87

In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring “uncontrolled legislative power” on the administration is known as the doctrine of:
(A) Ultra Vires
(B) Excessive Delegation
(C) Conditional Legislation
(D) Separation of Powers

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Excessive Delegation.

Reasoning: The doctrine of excessive delegation in Indian constitutional law holds that while some delegation of legislative power to the executive is permissible, the legislature must lay down essential legislative policy and guidelines. If too much discretion is delegated without clear standards, the delegation is struck down as excessive. This prevents the executive from virtually making law instead of merely filling in details.

Relevant Legal Principle: Doctrine of excessive delegation as developed in Supreme Court cases like In re Delhi Laws Act and others.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 88

For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?
(A) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.
(B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud.
(C) The fraud relates to the social status of the respondent’s family.
(D) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud.

Reasoning: Section 12(1)(c) HMA allows a marriage to be declared voidable if the consent of the petitioner was obtained by fraud. However, Section 12(2) and (3) lay down bars to relief. One such bar is that the petitioner, with full knowledge of the fraud, lived with the other party as husband or wife – this amounts to condonation. Once the defrauded party voluntarily continues marital cohabitation after discovery, they cannot later challenge the validity on that ground.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 12(1)(c) and 12(3), Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 – Voidable marriages and bars to relief.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 89

In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
(A) on the date of appointment of arbitrator.
(B) on the date the arbitration agreement is signed.
(C) on the date the request for reference is received by the respondent.
(D) on the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) on the date the request for reference is received by the respondent.

Reasoning: Section 21 clearly provides that, unless otherwise agreed, the arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent. This date is important for limitation and other procedural consequences.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 21, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – Commencement of arbitral proceedings.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 90

Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?
(A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598
(B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746
(C) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596
(D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598.

Reasoning: In Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to enjoy pollution-free water and air. It was a PIL concerning pollution of the river Bokaro. The Court emphasized that life includes the right to enjoyment of pollution‑free water and air for full enjoyment of life.

Relevant Case Law: Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 91

Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of ‘Absolute Liability’?
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086.

Reasoning: In the Oleum Gas Leak case (M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1987), the Supreme Court evolved the doctrine of absolute liability for hazardous industries – going beyond the English rule of strict liability. Enterprises engaged in inherently dangerous activities owe an absolute and non‑delegable duty to the community to ensure no harm results; if harm occurs, they are absolutely liable regardless of any exceptions like act of God.

Relevant Case Law: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak), AIR 1987 SC 1086.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 92

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
(A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
(B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
(C) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103
(D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103

Reasoning: Nemo Judex in Causa Sua and the Doctrine of Necessity

The case of J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa is where the Supreme Court of India specifically discussed the maxim nemo judex in causa sua (no one should be a judge in their own cause) and its exception, the Doctrine of Necessity.

• Nemo Judex in Causa Sua: This is a fundamental principle of natural justice, asserting that an adjudicator must be impartial and free from bias.
• Doctrine of Necessity: This doctrine is an exception to the rule against bias. It is invoked when the application of the rule against bias would result in the failure of justice. Essentially, if the only person or body competent to decide a matter is disqualified due to bias, they may still decide the matter out of necessity to prevent a breakdown in the administrative or judicial process.

In the J. Mohapatra case, the Supreme Court held that the strict rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity, thereby permitting a person who might otherwise be disqualified from sitting to do so if no other competent person is available to decide the matter.

Relevant Case Law: In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 93

As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit:
I. has been finally decided.
II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim.

Select the correct answer:
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) I, III and IV.

Reasoning: The essential ingredients of res judicata:

• The former suit has been heard and finally decided (I).
• The matter directly and substantially in issue is the same in both suits (III).
• The former suit was between the same parties or their privies (IV).

While practically the former suit will indeed precede the subsequent suit in time, “II” (about institution prior in time) is a corollary, not a separate statutory condition. The core requirements are I, III and IV.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 11, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Res judicata.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 94

Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the:
I. judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court.
II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property.
III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account.
IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same.

Select the correct answer:
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) I, II, III and IV.

Reasoning: Order 21 Rule 37–40 and Section 51 CPC enumerate the circumstances in which arrest and detention may be ordered in execution of a money decree. All the conditions listed (likelihood of absconding, fraudulent transfer of property, fiduciary liability, and willful non‑payment despite means) are recognized grounds upon which the court can authorize detention after giving the debtor opportunity to show cause. Hence all four apply.

Relevant Legal Clauses: Section 51 and Order 21 Rules 37–40, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 95

As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant:
I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served.
II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing.
III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff’s claim.
IV. without notice being served on the opposite party.

Select the correct answer:
(A) I and II
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (A) I and II

Reasoning: Setting Aside an Ex Parte Decree (Order IX, Rule 13, CPC)

The setting aside of a decree passed ex parte against a defendant is governed by Order IX, Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC). The defendant must apply to the Court and satisfy it on one of the following grounds:

Relevant Legal Clause: Order 9 Rule 13, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – Setting aside decree ex parte against defendant.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 96

When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing
(B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
(C) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses
(D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

Reasoning: The new Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam continues the policy of old Sections 25–26 of the Evidence Act: confessions made to a police officer or while in police custody are inadmissible, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. The rationale is to guard against coercion and third-degree methods. Hence a confession by a person in police custody is admissible only when made before a Magistrate.

Relevant Legal Principle: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 – Provisions equivalent to Sections 25–26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 97

Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 46

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) Section 39.

Reasoning: Under the earlier Evidence Act, opinions of experts were dealt with in Section 45. In the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam’s renumbered framework, this subject is placed in Section 39, which states that opinions of persons specially skilled in foreign law, science, art, handwriting, finger impressions, etc. are relevant when the Court has to form an opinion on such matters.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 39, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 – Opinions of experts.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 98

Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) A contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible.
(B) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved.
(C) A enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value. This fact may be proved.
(D) A orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.

AIBE answer key 2025: (B) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved.

Reasoning: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam preserves the parol evidence rule (corresponding to old Sections 91–92). When terms of a contract have been reduced to writing, no oral evidence can be given to contradict, vary, add to or subtract from those terms, subject to certain exceptions. In (B), the written contract fixes payment on 1st March; to prove a contemporaneous oral agreement postponing payment to 31st March directly contradicts the written term and is therefore inadmissible. Hence (B) is incorrect. Options (A), (C) and (D) correspond to recognized exceptions (e.g., separate verbal agreements, misrepresentation, or implied credit terms where writing is silent).

Relevant Legal Principle: Provisions corresponding to old Section 92, Indian Evidence Act – Exclusion of oral evidence by documentary evidence.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 99

As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the “degrees of prohibited relationship” if:
I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood.
III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father’s or mother’s brother or of the grandfather’s or grandmother’s brother of the other.
IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters.

Select the correct answer:
(A) I, III and IV
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

AIBE answer key 2025: (D) I, II, III and IV.

Reasoning: The First Schedule read with Section 3(g) HMA defines “degrees of prohibited relationship” and covers all close lineal, collateral and certain affinal relations. All four descriptions – direct ascendants/descendants, spouses of such ascendants/descendants, certain aunts/uncles by marriage, and sibling/uncle‑niece/aunt‑nephew relations – fall squarely within the prohibited degrees unless a specific custom permits otherwise.

Relevant Legal Clause: Section 3(g) and First Schedule, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

AIBE Answer Key 2025 – Question 100

Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
(A) Article 48A
(B) Article 39A
(C) Article 51A(g)
(D) Article 51A(h)

AIBE answer key 2025: (C) Article 51A(g).

Reasoning: Article 51A (inserted by the 42nd Amendment) enumerates fundamental duties. Clause (g) specifically states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India “to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.” This constitutional duty underpins a wide body of environmental jurisprudence in India.

Relevant Legal Clause: Article 51A(g), Constitution of India – Fundamental duty regarding protection of environment.