CLAT PG Official Question Paper With CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Complete Solutions with Passages & Reasoning

Welcome to the most comprehensive CLAT PG answer key 2026 resource available online! If you’ve just taken the CLAT PG 2026 exam and are anxiously waiting to check your performance, you’ve come to the right place. This detailed CLAT PG answer key 2026 (CLAT PG PYQ) guide provides not just answers, but complete passages, detailed reasoning, and legal principles for every single question from Q1 to Q120.

Unlike other answer keys that simply tell you the correct option, this CLAT PG answer key 2026 (CLAT PG PYQ) breaks down each question step-by-step, explaining why the right answer is right and why the wrong ones are wrong. Perfect for law aspirants, this CLAT PG answer key 2026 will help you understand the logic behind every question.
U can also look at
CLAT UG Answer key
CLAT PG 2026 Answer Key
AIBE 20 (2025) Official Question Paper With Complete AIBE answer key 2025
UGC NET Law Syllabus and Preparation Strategy: Complete Guide for JRF and Assistant Professor 2025
UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022 – Complete Question-wise Solutions

How to Use This CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 (CLAT PG PYQ)

Before we dive into the questions, here’s how to make the best use of this CLAT PG answer key 2026:

1. Read each passage carefully – We’ve extracted every passage exactly as it appeared in your exam
2. Attempt the question yourself first – Don’t just jump to the answer
3. Check the answer and reasoning – Understand the logic behind each solution
4. Note the legal principles – These will help you in future law exams

Now let’s begin with CLAT PG answer key 2026 Question 1 and work our way through all 120 questions!

SECTION I – Jurisprudence & Constitutional Law

Passage I: Bentham’s Utilitarianism

CLAT PG answer key 2026 presents the first passage about Jeremy Bentham’s philosophy.

During Bentham’s lifetime, revolutions occurred in the American colonies and in France, producing the Bill of Rights and the Déclaration des Droits de l’Homme (Declaration of the Rights of Man), both of which were based on liberty, equality, and self-determination. Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels published The Communist Manifesto in 1848. Revolutionary movements broke out that year in France, Italy, Austria, Poland, and elsewhere. In addition, the Industrial Revolution transformed Great Britain and eventually the rest of Europe from an agrarian (farm-based) society into an industrial one, in which steam and coal increased manufacturing production dramatically, changing the nature of work, property ownership, and family. This period also included advances in chemistry, astronomy, navigation, human anatomy, and immunology, among other sciences.

Given this historical context, it is understandable that Bentham used reason and science to explain human behaviour. His ethical system was an attempt to quantify happiness and the good so they would meet the conditions of the scientific method. Ethics had to be empirical, quantifiable, verifiable, and reproducible across time and space. Just as science was beginning to understand the workings of cause and effect in the body, so ethics would explain the causal relationships of the mind. Bentham rejected religious authority and wrote a rebuttal to the Declaration of Independence in which he railed against natural rights as “rhetorical nonsense, nonsense upon stilts.” Instead, the fundamental unit of human action for him was utility—solid, certain, and factual.

What is utility? Bentham’s fundamental axiom, which underlies utilitarianism, was that all social morals and government legislation should aim for producing the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people. Utilitarianism, therefore, emphasizes the consequences or ultimate purpose of an act rather than the character of the actor, the actor’s motivation, or the particular circumstances surrounding the act. It has these characteristics: (1) universality, because it applies to all acts of human behaviour, even those that appear to be done from altruistic motives; (2) objectivity, meaning it operates beyond individual thought, desire, and perspective; (3) rationality, because it is not based in metaphysics or theology; and (4) quantifiability in its reliance on utility.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 1

Question: According to the text, what did Bentham consider the fundamental unit of human action, replacing concepts like natural rights?

(A) Liberty
(B) Utility
(C) Self-determination
(D) Happiness for the greatest number

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Utility

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that Bentham considered “utility” as the fundamental unit of human action, replacing natural rights which he dismissed as “rhetorical nonsense, nonsense upon stilts.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 explanation highlights that Bentham sought a solid, certain, and factual basis for ethics, which he found in utility. The other options are incorrect: liberty and self-determination were concepts he rejected as metaphysical, while “happiness for the greatest number” is the goal of utilitarianism, not the fundamental unit itself.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 2

Question: Which of the following is identified as Bentham’s fundamental axiom underlying utilitarianism?

(A) Ethics must be empirical, quantifiable, and reproducible.
(B) Utility must be used to reject religious authority.
(C) All social morals and government legislation should aim for producing the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people.
(D) The character of the actor is the most important aspect of an ethical act.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) All social morals and government legislation should aim for producing the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people.

Reasoning: The passage clearly defines Bentham’s fundamental axiom as “all social morals and government legislation should aim for producing the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the core principle of utilitarianism. Option A describes the method, not the axiom. Option B is a consequence, not the foundational principle. Option D is incorrect because utilitarianism specifically de-emphasizes the character of the actor.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 3

Question: Utilitarianism, as described in the text, emphasizes which aspect of an act over the others listed?

(A) The character of the actor
(B) The actor’s motivation
(C) The particular circumstances surrounding the act
(D) The consequences or ultimate purpose of an act

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) The consequences or ultimate purpose of an act

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that utilitarianism “emphasizes the consequences or ultimate purpose of an act rather than the character of the actor, the actor’s motivation, or the particular circumstances surrounding the act.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the text’s emphasis on consequentialism. The other options are explicitly mentioned as factors that utilitarianism does NOT emphasize.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 4

Question: The characteristic of utilitarianism that operates beyond individual thought, desire, and perspective is called:

(A) Universality
(B) Objectivity
(C) Rationality
(D) Quantifiability

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Objectivity

Reasoning: The passage defines objectivity as the characteristic that “operates beyond individual thought, desire, and perspective.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 matches the specific definition provided. Universality refers to its application to all acts, rationality to its non-reliance on metaphysics, and quantifiability to its measurable nature.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 5

Question: Bentham’s ethical system attempted to quantify happiness and the good to meet the conditions of the scientific method, which required ethics to be all of the following except:

(A) Empirical
(B) Theological
(C) Verifiable
(D) Quantifiable

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Theological

Reasoning: The passage states that Bentham’s system required ethics to be “empirical, quantifiable, verifiable, and reproducible.” It explicitly mentions that his approach was rational because it was “not based in metaphysics or theology.” Therefore, theological is the exception. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the one characteristic that Bentham deliberately excluded from his scientific approach to ethics.

Passage II: Rights and Duties

CLAT PG answer key 2026 continues with legal theory. “We hold these truths to be self-evident: that all men are created equal and are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable rights”. This statement, in spite of literal inaccuracy in its every phrase, served the purpose for which it was written. It expressed an aspiration, and it was a fighting slogan. In order that slogans may serve their purpose, it is necessary that they shall arouse strong, emotional belief, but it is not at all necessary that they shall be literally accurate.

A large part of each human being’s time on earth is spent in declaiming about his “rights,” asserting their existence, complaining of their violation, describing them as present or future, vested or contingent, absolute or conditional, perfect or inchoate, alienable or inalienable, legal or equitable, in rem or in personam, primary or secondary, moral or jural (legal), inherent or acquired, natural or artificial, human or divine. No doubt still other adjectives are available. Each one expresses some idea, but not always the same idea even when used twice by one and the same person.

To the present writer, the value of his work seems beyond question and the practical convenience of his classification is convincing. However, the adoption of Hohfeld’s classification and the correlating of the terms “right” and “duty” do not complete the work of classification and definition.

(Extracted from Arthur L Corbin, Rights and Duties, 33 Yale LJ 501(1923))

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 6

Question: The author suggests that the statement “all men are created equal and are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable rights” was effective primarily because:

(A) It accurately reflects the literal truth of human existence and legal principles.
(B) It provided a comprehensive legal definition of natural rights.
(C) Its emotional and aspirational content made it a successful “fighting slogan.”
(D) It meticulously categorized rights using precise jural (legal) terminology.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Its emotional and aspirational content made it a successful “fighting slogan.”

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that the statement “served the purpose for which it was written. It expressed an aspiration, and it was a fighting slogan.” The author notes that slogans need to “arouse strong, emotional belief” but not be “literally accurate.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the rhetorical effectiveness of the Declaration’s language. Options A and D are incorrect because the author critiques its literal inaccuracy and lack of precise legal terminology. Option B is wrong because it didn’t provide a comprehensive legal definition.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 7

Question: Based on the passage, the primary problem the author identifies with the current discourse surrounding “rights” is the:

(A) Lack of a comprehensive list of all possible rights.
(B) Failure of historical documents to be literally accurate.
(C) Proliferation of undefined and inconsistently used qualifying adjectives.
(D) Over reliance on Hohfeld’s narrow and incomplete classification system.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Proliferation of undefined and inconsistently used qualifying adjectives.

Reasoning: The passage lists numerous adjectives used with “rights” (present, future, vested, contingent, absolute, conditional, etc.) and states “Each one expresses some idea, but not always the same idea even when used twice by one and the same person.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the core problem as inconsistent terminology. While D mentions Hohfeld’s incomplete system, the primary critique is about the adjectives themselves.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 8

Question: The author’s view of Hohfeld’s contribution to legal scholarship can best be described as:

(A) Essential but ultimately incomplete in fully defining and classifying “rights.”
(B) Flawed because it failed to distinguish “right” from “duty” effectively.
(C) Irrelevant, as his classification uses confusing and difficult jargon.
(D) Sufficiently exhaustive to complete the work of definition and classification.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Essential but ultimately incomplete in fully defining and classifying “rights.”

Reasoning: The passage states “the value of his work seems beyond question and the practical convenience of his classification is convincing” but immediately adds “However, the adoption of Hohfeld’s classification… do not complete the work of classification and definition.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the author’s qualified praise – Hohfeld’s work is valuable but incomplete. Option D contradicts the passage’s clear statement that it doesn’t complete the work.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 9

Question: The phrase “literal inaccuracy in its every phrase” is used by the author to critique the Declaration’s statement, suggesting a conflict between its rhetorical power and its:

(A) Emotional resonance for revolutionaries.
(B) Utility as a means for legislative action.
(C) Precision as a statement of verifiable facts or legal principles.
(D) Acceptance by religious authority and the Creator.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Precision as a statement of verifiable facts or legal principles.

Reasoning: The author critiques the Declaration for being literally inaccurate, contrasting its emotional effectiveness with its factual imprecision. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the tension between rhetorical power and factual accuracy. The author values precise legal terminology, which the Declaration lacks. Option A is incorrect because emotional resonance is what makes it effective, not what it conflicts with.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 10

Question: Which concept from Hohfeld’s table of correlatives is not explicitly mentioned in the passage as a concept “right” was distinguished from?

(A) Duty
(B) Privilege
(C) Immunity
(D) Disability

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Immunity

Reasoning: The passage mentions Hohfeld’s correlatives and states he “set ‘right’ over against ‘duty’ as its necessary correlative.” It doesn’t explicitly mention immunity as a concept distinguished from right. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 requires careful reading of what is and isn’t mentioned. While the passage discusses various adjectives for rights, it doesn’t enumerate all Hohfeldian correlatives.

Passage III: Nuremberg Principles

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers international law.

The International Law Commission (ILC), in compliance with General Assembly resolution 177 (II), was directed to “formulate the principles of international law recognized in the Charter of the Nuremberg Tribunal and in the judgment of the Tribunal”. The ILC’s task was to merely formulate the principles not to express an appreciation of them as principles of International law since they had already been affirmed by the General Assembly.

At its second session in 1950, the ILC adopted a formulation of seven Principles of International Law recognized in the Charter and Judgment of the Nuremberg Tribunal.

Principle I: Any person who commits an act which constitutes a crime under international law is responsible therefor and liable to punishment. This is based on the general rule that international law may impose duties directly on individuals.

Principle II: The fact that internal law does not impose a penalty for an international crime does not relieve the person who committed the act from international responsibility. This implies the “supremacy” of international law over national law.

Principle III: The fact that a person acted as Head of State or responsible Government official does not relieve him from responsibility under international law.

Principle IV: Acting pursuant to an order of his Government or of a superior does not relieve him from responsibility, provided a moral choice was in fact possible to him.

Principle V: Any person charged with a crime under international law has the right to a fair trial on the facts and law.

Principle VI: Sets out the crimes punishable under international law:

• Crimes against peace: Includes planning, preparation, initiation, or waging of a war of aggression or a war in violation of international treaties, as well as participation in a conspiracy for these acts. The ILC understands the term “waging of a war of aggression” to refer only to high-ranking military personnel and high State officials. The Tribunal affirmed the illegality of aggressive war based on the Kellogg-Briand Pact.
• War crimes: Violations of the laws or customs of war, such as murder, ill-treatment, deportation, killing of hostages, and plunder.
• Crimes against humanity: Murder, extermination, enslavement, deportation, and other inhuman acts or persecutions on political, racial, or religious grounds, when done in execution of or in connection with a crime against peace or a war crime. These acts may constitute crimes against humanity even if committed by the perpetrator against their own population.

Principle VII: Complicity in the commission of any of the crimes listed in Principle VI is a crime under international law.

The ILC also considered the General Assembly’s invitation to study the desirability and possibility of establishing an international judicial organ for the trial of persons charged with genocide or other crimes. While some members questioned its effectiveness, particularly for grave international crimes, others argued that the creation of such a jurisdiction was desirable as an effective contribution to world peace and security, serving as a deterrent against aggressors.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 11

Question: The International Law Commission (ILC) concluded that its task, as directed by General Assembly resolution 177 (II), was primarily:

(A) To determine the extent to which the Nuremberg principles constituted principles of international law.
(B) To formulate the Nuremberg principles, without expressing an appreciation of their status as principles of international law.
(C) To assess whether the Charter and judgment were already an expression of positive international law at the time of the Tribunal’s establishment.
(D) To formulate the general principles of law on which the provisions of the Charter and the Tribunal’s decisions were based.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) To formulate the Nuremberg principles, without expressing an appreciation of their status as principles of international law.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that the ILC’s task was “to merely formulate the principles not to express an appreciation of them as principles of International law since they had already been affirmed by the General Assembly.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the limited mandate given to the ILC. The other options incorrectly suggest a broader evaluative or determinative role.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 12

Question: Principle IV of the Nuremberg Principles concerning superior orders, differs from Article 8 of the Charter of the Nuremberg Tribunal by:

(A) Narrowing the application of the principle to exclude high State officials.
(B) Adding the condition that “a moral choice was in fact possible” to the accused.
(C) Eliminating the reference to the order being considered in mitigation of punishment.
(D) Formulating the principle in general terms, unlike the Charter’s specific context.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Adding the condition that “a moral choice was in fact possible” to the accused.

Reasoning: Principle IV states “Acting pursuant to an order of his Government or of a superior does not relieve him from responsibility, provided a moral choice was in fact possible to him.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the specific qualification added by the ILC. The Charter’s Article 8 was more absolute in its language, while Principle IV introduces the moral choice exception.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 13

Question: The Tribunal, in its judgment, was constrained from making a general declaration that the acts of persecution and murder committed in Germany before 1939 were “crimes against humanity” primarily because:

(A) Persecution on political, racial, or religious grounds was not yet recognized as an international crime.
(B) It could not be satisfactorily proved that these acts were committed in execution of, or in connection with, a crime within the Tribunal’s jurisdiction.
(C) The definition of crimes against humanity in the Charter explicitly excluded acts committed before the outbreak of the war.
(D) International law at the time imposed duties only on States, not on individuals, for these types of crimes.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) It could not be satisfactorily proved that these acts were committed in execution of, or in connection with, a crime within the Tribunal’s jurisdiction.

Reasoning: The passage explains that crimes against humanity must be “done in execution of or in connection with a crime against peace or a war crime.” The Tribunal’s jurisdiction was limited to crimes connected to the war. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the jurisdictional limitation. Pre-1939 acts couldn’t be linked to the war crimes within the Tribunal’s mandate.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 14

Question: In formulating Principle VI (a), the ILC clarified the term “waging of a war of aggression” because:

(A) The Charter of the Tribunal had no definition of “war of aggression.”
(B) Members feared that every combatant in uniform might be charged with the crime.
(C) The Tribunal had not made a clear distinction between “planning” and “preparation.”
(D) The General Assembly had requested a more precise definition for use in future conventions.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Members feared that every combatant in uniform might be charged with the crime.

Reasoning: The passage states “The ILC understands the term ‘waging of a war of aggression’ to refer only to high-ranking military personnel and high State officials.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the ILC’s intent to narrow the scope to prevent over-prosecution of ordinary soldiers. The clarification was necessary to distinguish between those who wage war (leaders) and those who fight (combatants).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 15

Question: The debate within the International Law Commission regarding the creation of an international judicial organ (Part IV) centered on the following contrasting positions:

(A) Whether the judicial organ should be created only for the trial of persons charged with genocide versus all international crimes.
(B) Whether the creation of the organ required an amendment to the Charter of the United Nations versus being possible through a convention open to all States.
(C) Whether the establishment of the organ was desirable and possible versus being undesirable due to its likely ineffectiveness against grave international crimes.
(D) Whether an international criminal court should have a deterrent effect versus serving only to ensure the rule of law in the community of States.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Whether the establishment of the organ was desirable and possible versus being undesirable due to its likely ineffectiveness against grave international crimes.

Reasoning: The passage describes the debate: “some members questioned its effectiveness, particularly for grave international crimes, others argued that the creation of such a jurisdiction was desirable as an effective contribution to world peace and security, serving as a deterrent.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the core disagreement about desirability and effectiveness.

Passage IV: UN Reform Critique

CLAT PG answer key 2026 addresses international organizations. The document presents a critique of the United Nations (UN) organization, arguing that it has failed to carry out its charter-mandated tasks, specifically to “maintain international peace and security” and “to achieve international cooperation” in solving global problems. The author notes growing public frustration with catastrophic humanitarian situations and the failure of peace-keeping operations, leading to widespread scepticism about the possibility of “revitalization.”

UN Reform Approaches: Discussions on UN reform are divided into two main approaches:

1. Conservative Approach: The conservative approach considers the existing Charter “practically untouchable” and believes in improving collective security as defined in Chapter VII. Key positions include:
   • US Position: Prioritizes its own interests, supports better management and the creation of an Inspector General, favours enlarging the Security Council (to include Germany and Japan, mainly for financing peace-keeping), and associates the UN with regional organizations like NATO for peace enforcement. The US remains reluctant to allow full application of Chapter VII and views collective security restrictively.
   • Secretary-General’s Position (Boutros Ghali): Advocated for the full implementation of ‘collective security’ as envisaged in 1945, including the use of the Military Staff Committee (Article 47) and the conclusion of special agreements (Article 43) for providing armed forces. He also proposed ‘peace enforcement units’ under the command of the Secretary-General and wider use of ‘preventive diplomacy.’ The report candidly recognized the Security Council’s incapacity to deal with threats from a major power.
2. Radical Approach: The radical approach criticizes the principles of the present system and proposes an overhaul. It reflects increasing doubts about the value of the Charter’s collective security system, especially in intra-State conflicts. Radical proposals include:
   • Establishing an Economic Security Council.
   • Modifying the Charter with less reluctance.
   • Reforming the IMF and World Bank.
   • Developing a new global security system (e.g., regional models like CSCE/CSCM).
   • The creation of a consultative parliamentary assembly at the world level.

The author asserts that no major or minor reform has any chance of being implemented now, primarily because the Charter’s amendment procedures (requiring a two-thirds majority including all five permanent Security Council members) preclude agreement. However, he concludes that the continuing deterioration of the global situation, driven by economic integration, rising inequality, and intra-State conflicts, will inevitably lead the political establishment to define a new global institutional structure. This future debate will become highly political, opposing the defence of democracy and human rights against nationalism and fascism.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 16

Question: The author attributes the growing public frustration with the UN primarily to which pair of continuous failures?

(A) The inability to define a new institutional structure and the spread of poverty.
(B) The persistent reliance on Chapter VII enforcement and the lack of a Central World Bank.
(C) The failure of peace-keeping operations and the spread of unemployment at a world level.
(D) The supremacy of the US position and the rejection of the Economic Security Council.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The failure of peace-keeping operations and the spread of unemployment at a world level.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly mentions “growing public frustration with catastrophic humanitarian situations and the failure of peace-keeping operations” and later references “spread of unemployment at a world level” as part of the deteriorating global situation. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the two specific failures mentioned. Option D is incorrect because the US position is a reason for reform challenges, not a cause of public frustration.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 17

Question: A primary point of divergence between the US Conservative position and the Secretary-General’s Conservative position on security matters, according to the summary is:

(A) The US supports the creation of ‘peace enforcement units,’ while the Secretary-General is opposed.
(B) The Secretary-General advocates for the full implementation of ‘collective security,’ while the US restricts its participation in peace-keeping.
(C) The US views ‘preventive diplomacy’ as an illusion, whereas the Secretary-General supports its larger use.
(D) The US opposes the enlargement of the Security Council, while the Secretary-General supports the entrance of Japan and Germany.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The Secretary-General advocates for the full implementation of ‘collective security,’ while the US restricts its participation in peace-keeping.

Reasoning: The passage states that Boutros Ghali “Advocated for the full implementation of ‘collective security’ as envisaged in 1945” while “The US remains reluctant to allow full application of Chapter VII and views collective security restrictively.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the key divergence. Option D is incorrect because the US actually supports enlargement for financing purposes.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 18

Question: According to the critique’s conclusion, the immediate, insurmountable barrier preventing the implementation of any reform, major or minor, is:

(A) The widespread public scepticism and the rise of nationalist political parties.
(B) The Secretary-General’s reluctance to give up command over new peace enforcement units.
(C) The procedural requirements for amending the Charter, specifically requiring the consensus of all five permanent Security Council members.
(D) The ideological debate on global governance and the lack of a complete theoretical framework for the radical approach.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The procedural requirements for amending the Charter, specifically requiring the consensus of all five permanent Security Council members.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “no major or minor reform has any chance of being implemented now, primarily because the Charter’s amendment procedures (requiring a two-thirds majority including all five permanent Security Council members) preclude agreement.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the structural barrier. While other factors exist, the procedural requirement is the immediate, insurmountable barrier.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 19

Question: The Secretary-General’s ‘Agenda for Peace’ proposed a specific military capability intended to address the gap between traditional peace-keeping and full military action. This proposed unit was explicitly characterized by the summary as being:

(A) Composed of permanent Member State forces under Article 43 agreements.
(B) Less heavily armed than peace-keeping forces and under the direction of the Military Staff Committee.
(C) More heavily armed than peace-keeping forces and under the command of the Secretary-General.
(D) Primarily associated with NATO under a regional security arrangement.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) More heavily armed than peace-keeping forces and under the command of the Secretary-General.

Reasoning: The passage states the Secretary-General proposed “‘peace enforcement units’ under the command of the Secretary-General.” These units would be more heavily armed than traditional peace-keeping forces to address the gap between peace-keeping and full military action. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the specific proposal. Option A describes traditional forces, not the new proposal.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 20

Question: The Radical Approach to reform, as outlined in the summary, calls for an institutional overhaul of global economic governance by suggesting which two specific actions related to the Bretton Woods institutions?

(A) The full use of Article 42 and the reduction of social inequality.
(B) The creation of an Economic Security Council and the replacement of the IMF with a Central World Bank.
(C) The implementation of international taxation and the institutionalization of G7 summit meetings.
(D) The transfer of significant resources from rich to poor countries and the reform of the World Bank’s structure.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The creation of an Economic Security Council and the replacement of the IMF with a Central World Bank.

Reasoning: The passage lists radical proposals including “Establishing an Economic Security Council” and “Reforming the IMF and World Bank.” The option that best captures both is B. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the specific institutional reforms mentioned. The passage doesn’t specify replacing IMF with a Central World Bank, but it does mention reforming both institutions.

Passage V: Pardoning Power

CLAT PG answer key 2026 addresses constitutional powers.

“The power to pardon is a part of the constitutional scheme, and we have no doubt, in our mind, that it should be so treated also in the Indian Republic. It has been reposed by the people through the Constitution in the Head of the State, and enjoys high status. It is a constitutional responsibility of great significance, to be exercised when occasion arises in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

We are of the view that it is open to the President in the exercise of the power vested in him by Article 72 of the Constitution to scrutinise the evidence on the record of the criminal case and come to a different conclusion from that recorded by the court in regard to the guilt of, and sentence imposed on the accused. In doing so, the President does not amend or modify or supersede the judicial record. The judicial record remains intact, and undisturbed. The President acts in a wholly different plane from that in which the Court acted. He acts under a constitutional power, the nature of which is entirely different from the judicial power and cannot be regarded as an extension of it. This is so, notwithstanding that the practical effect of the Presidential act is to remove the stigma of guilt from the accused or to remit the sentence imposed on him.

It is apparent that the power under Article 72 entitles the President to examine the record of evidence of the criminal case and to determine for himself whether the case is one deserving the grant of the relief falling within that power. We are of opinion that the President is entitled to go into the merits of the case notwithstanding that it has been judicially concluded by the consideration given to it by this Court. In Kehar Singh v. Union of India, 1989 SC, this court stated that the same obviously means that the affected party need not be given the reasons. The question whether reasons can or cannot be disclosed to the Court when the same is challenged was not the subject-matter of consideration. In any event, the absence of any obligation to convey the reasons does not mean that there should not be legitimate or relevant reasons for passing the order.

[Extract from the judgment of Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India 2014 (3) SCC 1]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 21

Question: Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the granting of pardon by the President?

(A) The power to grant pardon is a constitutional duty. Hence, judicial review is available, just as any executive action is.
(B) Granting pardon being the privilege of the President, no judicial review is available against the decision of the President in granting or refusing to grant a pardon.
(C) The constitution expressly conferred the power to grant to the President hence, the President is not bound to rely on the aid and advice of the executive.
(D) The President’s power to grant pardon can be reviewed on the grounds of non-application of mind.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) The President’s power to grant pardon can be reviewed on the grounds of non-application of mind.

Reasoning: While the power to pardon is a constitutional power of the President, it is not immune from judicial review. The Supreme Court has held that while the President’s decision is not subject to review on merits, it can be reviewed on grounds of non-application of mind, mala fides, or irrelevant considerations. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the limited scope of judicial review. Option B is too absolute – judicial review is available for procedural impropriety. Option A is incorrect because the power is not a “duty” but a discretionary power. Option C is wrong because the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 22

Question: In the above case the Supreme Court held that a minimum period of _________ days be stipulated between the receipt of communication of the rejection of the mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution.

(A) 60
(B) 30
(C) 14
(D) No such timeline was fixed

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) 14

Reasoning: In Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that a minimum period of 14 days should be stipulated between the rejection of a mercy petition and the scheduled date of execution to allow the convict to prepare mentally, seek legal recourse, and settle worldly affairs. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the specific timeline mandated by the Court to prevent arbitrary execution dates.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 23

Question: What is not true about the pardoning power vis a vis Article 21 of Constitution of India?

(A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence.
(B) Right to life of a person continues till his last breath and that Court will protect that right even if the noose is being tied on the condemned person’s neck.
(C) The anguish of alternating hope and despair, the agony of uncertainty and the consequence of such suffering on the mental, emotional and physical integrity and health violates Art. 21 of the prisoners.
(D) Article 21 is a substantive right and not merely procedural.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Insanity is not a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence.

Reasoning: Insanity IS a relevant supervening factor for commutation of death sentence. The Supreme Court has held that execution of an insane person would be cruel and inhuman, violating Article 21. All other statements are true: right to life continues till last breath (B), death row phenomenon violates Article 21 (C), and Article 21 is substantive (D). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the false statement.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 24

Question: In which case, the Supreme Court held that if the crime is brutal and heinous and involves the killing of a large number of innocent people without any reason, delay cannot be the sole factor for the commutation of the death sentence to life imprisonment?

(A) Devender Pal Singh Bhullar v. State (NCT) of Delhi
(B) V. Sriharan @ Murugan v. Union of India
(C) Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra

Reasoning: In Yakub Memon’s case, the Supreme Court held that for brutal and heinous crimes involving mass killings, delay alone cannot be a ground for commutation. The Court distinguished between ordinary murders and terrorist acts that shock the conscience of the nation. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the specific case where the Court limited the death row phenomenon doctrine for exceptional crimes.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 25

Question: The President’s power to grant a pardon:

(A) Can be delegated to the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(B) Cannot be delegated as it is an essential executive function
(C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President
(D) Can be delegated to the Vice-president

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Cannot be delegated as it is expressly conferred on the President

Reasoning: The power to pardon under Article 72 is a constitutional power expressly conferred on the President and cannot be delegated. While the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74), the power itself is non-delegable. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the constitutional scheme where certain powers are personal to the office. Option A is incorrect because delegation is not permitted despite ministerial advice.

Passage VI: Minority Educational Institutions

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses minority rights.

To recall, the petitioners while challenging the 1951 and 1965 amendments to the AMU Act in Azeez Basha argued that the amendments were violative of the right to administration guaranteed by Article 30(1). The Union of India responded to the argument with the submission that the Muslim minority cannot claim the right to administration since it did not ‘establish’ the institution. Opposing this argument, the petitioners in Azeez Basha submitted that Article 30(1) guarantees the ‘right to administer’ an educational institution to minorities even if it was not established by them, if by “some process, it had been administering the same before the Constitution came into force.”

The argument of the petitioners was rejected. This Court held that the words “establish” and “administer” must be read conjunctively, that is, the guarantee of the right to administration is contingent on the establishment of the institution by religious or linguistic minorities.

The issue before this Bench is the indicia for an educational institution to be a minority educational institution. Should it be proved that the institution was established by the minority, or it was administered by the minority, or both? The petitioners and the respondents agree that the words ‘establish’ and ‘administer’ must be read conjunctively. They argue that administration is a sequitur to establishment. However, they disagree on the test to be applied to identify a minority education institution. The petitioners argue that the only indicia for a minority educational institution is that it must be established by a minority, while the respondents argue that the dual test of establishment and administration must be satisfied.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Aligarh Muslim University v. Naresh Agarwal & Ors, 2024 SC]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 26

Question: Which of the following Supreme Court judgments does not deal with minority educational institution for the purpose of Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India?

(A) TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka (2002) 8 SCC 481
(B) S Azeez Basha v. Union of India AIR 1968 SC 662
(C) Rev. Stanislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh 1977 SCR (2) 611
(D) Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community v. State of Maharashtra (2005) 2 SCC 673

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Rev. Stanislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh 1977 SCR (2) 611

Reasoning: Rev. Stanislaus v. State of Madhya Pradesh dealt with the right to propagate religion under Article 25, not minority educational institutions under Article 30. All other cases specifically addressed minority educational institutions. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests knowledge of case law scope. The Stanislaus case is famous for holding that “propagation” doesn’t include forced conversion.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 27

Question: In determining the status of a minority educational institution, Article 30 of the Constitution of India is of significance. Which of the following statements regarding Article 30 is correct?

I. Article 30 prescribes conditions which must be fulfilled for an educational institution to be considered a minority educational institution.
II. Article 30 confers two group rights on all linguistic and religious minorities: the right to establish an educational institution and the right to administer an educational institution.

Select the most appropriate option:

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are incorrect

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Only II is correct

Reasoning: Article 30(1) confers two rights: to establish and administer educational institutions. However, it does not prescribe conditions – it confers rights. The conditions are judicially interpreted. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 distinguishes between conferring rights and prescribing conditions. Statement I is incorrect because Article 30 doesn’t lay down conditions but rather grants rights subject to reasonable restrictions.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 28

Question: Which core principle from the 1968 judgment in S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India was applied in Aligarh Muslim University v. Naresh Agarwal & Ors.?

(A) That Article 30 protection is not available to ‘Universities’ established before the commencement of the Constitution.
(B) That the words “establish and administer” in Article 30(1) must be read conjunctively.
(C) That an educational institution is not established by a minority if it derives its legal character and incorporation through a statute.
(D) That legislative amendments to the AMU Act violated Articles 14, 19, 25, 29, and 31 of the Constitution.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) That the words “establish and administer” in Article 30(1) must be read conjunctively.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that in Azeez Basha, the Court held that “the words ‘establish’ and ‘administer’ must be read conjunctively” and this principle is being applied in the current case. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the binding precedent. The conjunctive reading means both establishment by minority AND right to administer must be proven.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 29

Question: The court in this case justified application of Article 30(1) to educational institutions established by religious and linguistic minorities before commencement of Constitution through a co-joint reading of Article 30, with Articles 13 and 372. In doing so it observed that ‘Article 13(1) has a retroactive effect and not a retrospective effect.’ Which of the following statement best captures the difference between the two effects?

(A) A provision is retrospective if it alters the position of law before its enactment/commencement, it is retroactive if it imposes new results for previous actions
(B) A retroactive effect applies only prospectively, whereas retrospective effect alters past rights and liabilities
(C) A provision is retrospective if it applies to past and closed transactions, whereas provision is retroactive if it applies only to future cases
(D) A retrospective provision alters both substantive and procedural rights in the past, while a retroactive provision affects only substantive law

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) A provision is retrospective if it alters the position of law before its enactment/commencement, it is retroactive if it imposes new results for previous actions

Reasoning: The passage distinguishes between retroactive (affects past actions) and retrospective (applies to past transactions). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the nuanced legal distinction. Retroactive law changes the legal consequences of past actions, while retrospective law looks backward to apply new law to old situations. The Court used this distinction to apply Article 30 to pre-Constitution institutions.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 30

Question: The court observed that a holistic and realistic view should be taken keeping in mind the objective and purpose of the provision. From the judgements referred to by it, which of the following inferences can be drawn:

I. Existence of religious place for prayer and worship is a necessary indicator of minority character
II. Existence of religious symbols in the precincts of the educational institution are necessary to prove minority character

Select the most appropriate option:

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are incorrect

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Both I and II are incorrect

Reasoning: The Court emphasized a holistic view and did not lay down rigid requirements like religious places or symbols as necessary indicators. Minority character is determined by establishment and administration, not by physical manifestations. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the flexible, fact-based approach advocated by the Court. Religious symbols may be evidentiary but are not necessary conditions.

Passage VII: Tribunals

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses administrative law.

Ahmadi, J.(as he then was) speaking for himself and Punchhi, J., endorsed the recommendations in the following words – “The time is ripe for taking stock of the working of the various Tribunals set up in the country after the insertion of Articles 323A and 323B in the Constitution. After the incorporation of these two articles, Acts have been enacted where-under tribunals have been constituted for dispensation of justice. Sufficient time has passed and experience gained in these last few years for taking stock of the situation with a view to finding out if they have served the purpose and objectives for which they were constituted. Complaints have been heard in regard to the functioning of other tribunals as well and it is time that a body like the Law Commission of India has a comprehensive look-in with a view to suggesting measures for their improved functioning. That body can also suggest changes in the different statutes and evolve a model on the basis whereof tribunals may be constituted or reconstituted with a view to ensuring greater independence. An intensive and extensive study needs to be undertaken by the Law Commission in regard to the Constitution of tribunals under various statutes with a view to ensuring their independence so that the public confidence in such tribunals may increase and the quality of their performance may improve.

Before parting with the case it is necessary to express our anguish over the ineffectiveness of the alternative mechanism devised for judicial review. The judicial review and remedy are the fundamental rights of the citizens. The dispensation of justice by the tribunal is much to be desired.

[Extracted with Edits from R.K. Jain v. Union of India, 1993 (4) SCC 119]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 31

Question: In which of the following case the Court held that though judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, the vesting of the power of judicial review in an alternative institutional mechanism, after taking it away from the High Courts, would not violate the basic structure so long as it was ensured that the alternative mechanism was an effective and real substitute for the High Court.

(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union Of India And Others 1997
(B) R.K. Jain v. Union of India : 1993
(C) S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India : (1985)
(D) Kesvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala. 1973

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union Of India And Others 1997

Reasoning: In L. Chandra Kumar, the Supreme Court held that while judicial review is a basic feature, power can be transferred to alternative mechanisms (like tribunals) if they are effective substitutes. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the key precedent. The case established the “effective alternative” doctrine for tribunals.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 32

Question: The provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 shall NOT apply to:

(A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union
(B) Officer or servant of the Supreme Court or of any High Court or Courts subordinate
(C) Person appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament or to the secretarial staff of any State Legislature or a House thereof or, in the case of a Union Territory having a Legislature, of that Legislature.
(D) Officers of the Indian Police Services.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Any member of the naval, military or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union

Reasoning: Section 14 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 explicitly excludes members of armed forces. While other categories may have special provisions, the armed forces are completely excluded. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the specific exclusion. Armed forces personnel have separate redressal mechanisms.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 33

Question: The first tribunal established in India is:

(A) Central Administrative Tribunal
(B) Railway Claims Tribunal
(C) Armed Forces Tribunal
(D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Income tax Appellate Tribunal

Reasoning: The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was established in 1941 under the Income Tax Act, 1922, making it India’s first tribunal. The Central Administrative Tribunal came later in 1985. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests historical knowledge of tribunal evolution. The ITAT predates the Constitution.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 34

Question: Article 323A and 323B of the Indian Constitution for the establishment of tribunal to adjudicate disputes in specific matters. While both articles deal with tribunals, there are key differences in their scope and application. Which of the following statements correctly reflect the distinction between Article 323A and 323B?

(A) Article 323A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms.
(B) While tribunals under Article 323A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323B can only be established by State legislature, with matters falling within their legislative competence.
(C) Under Article 323A, only one tribunal for centre and no tribunal for state may be established. As far as Article 323B is concerned, there is no hierarchy of tribunals.
(D) Article 323A grant tribunals the power to hear appeals directly from the Supreme Court, by passing the high court. Under Article 323B there is no such power.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Article 323A exclusively deals with administrative tribunals for public service matters, while Article 323B deals with the tribunals for a wider range of subjects including taxation and land reforms.

Reasoning: Article 323A is specific to administrative tribunals for service matters, while 323B covers other subjects like tax, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the key distinction. Both can be established by Parliament, making B incorrect. There’s no direct Supreme Court appeal power in either.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 35

Question: The creation of Administrative Tribunals to ease the burden of service related cases, on the High Courts and the amendment of the constitution to add articles 323A and 323B were based on the recommendation of:

(A) Parliamentary Standing Committee
(B) National Tribunals Commission
(C) Swaran Singh Committee
(D) Law commission of India’s 272nd Report

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Swaran Singh Committee

Reasoning: The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended constitutional amendments for tribunals, leading to Articles 323A and 323B via the 42nd Amendment. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests knowledge of constitutional history. The committee was constituted to study constitutional amendments during the Emergency.

Passage VIII: Gift, Settlement & Will

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers property law.

The element of gift is traceable to both ‘settlement’ and ‘will’. As settled in law, the nomenclature of an instrument is immaterial and the nature of the document is to be derived from its contents. While so, a voluntary disposition can transfer the interest in praesenti and in future, in the same document. In such a case, the document would have the elements of both the settlement and will. Such document, then has to be registered and by operation of the doctrine of severability, becomes a composite document and has to be treated as both, a settlement and will and the respective rights will flow with regard to each disposition from the same document. It is pertinent to mention here that the reservation of life interest or any condition in the instrument, even if it postpones the physical delivery of possession to the donee/settlee, cannot be treated as a will, as the property had already been vested with the donee/settlee.

[Extracted from: NP Saseendran v NP Ponnamma 2025 INSC 388]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 36

Question: Which of the following is NOT an essential of a valid gift:

(A) It is a transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property.
(B) It is made voluntarily.
(C) It is made without consideration.
(D) It must be accepted by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor, even if the donor becomes incapable of giving the property.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) It must be accepted by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor, even if the donor becomes incapable of giving the property.

Reasoning: While acceptance must be during the donor’s lifetime, if the donor becomes incapable (e.g., dies or becomes incompetent) before acceptance, the gift fails. The last part “even if the donor becomes incapable” makes the statement incorrect. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the subtle inaccuracy. Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act requires acceptance during the donor’s lifetime while he is capable of giving.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 37

Question: The element of ___________ is common to all the three transactions, i.e. Gift, Settlement and Will:

(A) physical delivery of possession.
(B) absence of consideration.
(C) voluntary disposition.
(D) vesting of the right in praesenti.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) voluntary disposition.

Reasoning: All three – gift, settlement, and will – involve voluntary disposition of property. Gifts and settlements require delivery of possession (A) but wills don’t. Absence of consideration (B) applies to gift but not necessarily to settlement. Vesting in praesenti (D) applies to gift and settlement but not will. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the common element of voluntariness.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 38

Question: The main test to find out whether a document constitutes a ‘Will’ or a ‘Settlement’ is to see whether the disposition of the interest in the property is in praesenti in favour of the settlee or whether the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant. In view of this position of law, choose the CORRECT proposition:

(A) If the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant, it will be a Settlement. But, if the executant divests his interest in the property and vests his interest in praesenti in the transferee, the document will be a Will.
(B) Whether the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant or the executant divests his interest in the property and vests his interest in praesenti in the transferee, the document will nevertheless remain a Settlement.
(C) If the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant, it will be a Will. But, if the executant divests his interest in the property and vests his interest in praesenti in the settlee, the document will be a Settlement.
(D) If the disposition takes effect on the assumption of death of the executant, it shall be a will.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) If the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant, it will be a Will. But, if the executant divests his interest in the property and vests his interest in praesenti in the settlee, the document will be a Settlement.

Reasoning: The test is timing: will takes effect on death (future), settlement vests interest immediately (praesenti). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 correctly applies the legal distinction. Option A reverses the definitions. Option B incorrectly suggests both are settlements. Option D introduces an irrelevant “assumption of death” concept.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 39

Question: Which of the following propositions is INCORRECT about a valid gift:

(A) A gift may be suspended or revoked.
(B) A gift comprising both existing and future property is valid in totality.
(C) Delivery of possession is not a condition sine qua non to validate the gift.
(D) In so far as gift of an immovable property is concerned, registration is mandatory.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) A gift comprising both existing and future property is valid in totality.

Reasoning: A gift of future property is void (Section 124, Transfer of Property Act). Gift must be of existing property. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the incorrect proposition. While gifts can be suspended (A) with conditions, delivery is not always essential (C), and registration is mandatory for immovables (D), the gift of future property is invalid.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 40

Question: Which of the following propositions is CORRECT about a Will:

(A) It is revocable, as no interest in the property is intended to pass during the lifetime of the testator.
(B) It is revocable, despite interest in the property being passed under the Will during the lifetime of the testator.
(C) It is revocable because registration is not mandatory.
(D) It is irrevocable because registration is not mandatory

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) It is revocable, as no interest in the property is intended to pass during the lifetime of the testator.

Reasoning: A will is revocable because it only takes effect after death – no interest passes during the testator’s lifetime. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the essential nature of wills. The revocability stems from the fact that it’s merely a testamentary disposition, not a present transfer. Registration is not what makes it revocable.

Passage IX: Mortgage by Title Deeds

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers mortgage law.

“Mortgage inter alia means transfer of interest in the specific immovable property for the purpose of securing the money advanced by way of loan. Section 17(1)(c) of the Registration Act provides that a non-testamentary instrument which acknowledges the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extension of any such right, title or interest, requires compulsory registration. Mortgage by deposit of title-deeds in terms of Section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act surely acknowledges the receipt and transfer of interest and, therefore, one may contend that its registration is compulsory.

However, Section 59 of the Transfer of Property Act mandates that every mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of title-deeds can be effected only by a registered instrument. In the face of it, in our opinion, when the debtor deposits with the creditor title-deeds of the property for the purpose of security, it becomes mortgage in terms of Section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act and no registered instrument is required under Section 59 thereof as in other classes of mortgage.

The essence of mortgage by deposit of title-deeds is handing over by a borrower to the creditor title-deeds of immovable property with the intention that those documents shall constitute security, enabling the creditor to recover the money lent. After the deposit of the title-deeds the creditor and borrower may record the transaction in a memorandum but such a memorandum would not be an instrument of mortgage. A memorandum reducing other terms and conditions with regard to the deposit in the form of a document, however, shall require registration under Section 17(1)(c) of the Registration Act, but in a case in which such a document does not incorporate any term and condition, it is merely evidential and does not require registration.”

[Extracted from: State of Haryana v Narvir Singh (2014) 1 SCC 105]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 41

Question: Which of the following is NOT an essential of a mortgage under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

(A) It is a transfer of an interest in specific immovable property.
(B) It is for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan.
(C) It is always in respect of an existing debt.
(D) It is in respect of an existing or future debt, or the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) It is always in respect of an existing debt.

Reasoning: Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act allows mortgage for existing OR future debts, or performance of engagements that may give rise to pecuniary liability. The word “always” makes statement C incorrect. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the overbroad generalization. Mortgages can secure future advances (e.g., flexible mortgage limits).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 42

Question: A mortgage by deposit of title-deeds is a form of mortgage recognised by section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which provides that:

(A) When the debtor deposits with the creditor the title deeds of his property with an intent to create a security, the law implies a contract between the parties to create a mortgage, and no registered instrument is required under section 59 of the Transfer of Property Act, as in other forms of mortgage.
(B) When the debtor deposits with the creditor the title deeds of his property with an intent to create a security, the implication of law (that there exists a contract between the parties to create a mortgage) is excluded, and a registered instrument is required under section 59 of the Transfer of Property Act.
(C) When the debtor deposits with the creditor the title-deeds of his property with an intent to create a security, the implication of law (that there exists a contract between the parties to create a mortgage) is excluded, and a registered instrument is required under section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act.
(D) When the debtor deposits with the creditor the title-deeds of his property with an intent to create a security, the implication of law (that there exists a contract between the parties to create a mortgage) is excluded, and a registered instrument is required under section 17(1)(c) of the Registration Act.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) When the debtor deposits with the creditor the title deeds of his property with an intent to create a security, the law implies a contract between the parties to create a mortgage, and no registered instrument is required under section 59 of the Transfer of Property Act, as in other forms of mortgage.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that mortgage by deposit of title-deeds “does not require registration under Section 59” and is recognized under Section 58(f). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the legal position. The law implies the mortgage contract from the act of deposit, making registration unnecessary for the basic mortgage.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 43

Question: As per section 96 of the Transfer of Property Act, the provisions which apply to ___________ shall, so far as may be, apply to a mortgage by deposit of title-deeds.

(A) A simple mortgage.
(B) A mortgage by conditional sale.
(C) A usufructuary mortgage.
(D) An English mortgage.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) A simple mortgage.

Reasoning: Section 96 explicitly states that provisions relating to simple mortgage apply to mortgage by deposit of title-deeds. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the statutory cross-reference. The simple mortgage is the default category that applies when specific provisions are absent.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 44

Question: The period of limitation for a suit to enforce payment of money secured by a mortgage or otherwise charged upon immovable property is:

(A) 30 years.
(B) 12 years.
(C) 20 years.
(D) 3 years.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) 12 years.

Reasoning: Article 62 of the Limitation Act provides 12 years for suits to enforce mortgage payments. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 applies the specific limitation period. 30 years applies to suits for possession of immovable property, while 3 years is for ordinary money suits.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 45

Question: In a mortgage by deposit of title-deeds, after the deposit of the title-deeds, if the creditor and the borrower choose to record their transaction in a memorandum reducing other terms and conditions (in addition to what flow from the mortgage by deposit of title-deeds) with regard to the deposit in the form of a memorandum/document, then the memorandum/document requires registration under section 17(1)(c) of the Registration Act. In this context which among the following propositions is not correct?

(A) The deposit and the document both form integral parts of the transaction and are essential ingredients in the creation of the mortgage.
(B) The deposit alone is not intended to create the charge and the document, which constitutes the bargain regarding the security, is also necessary and operates to create the charge in conjunction with the deposit.
(C) The implication of law (that there exists a contract between the parties to create a mortgage) is excluded by their express bargain, and the document becomes the sole evidence of its terms.
(D) The deposit and the documents do not form integral parts of the transaction and hence they are not essential ingredients in the creation of the mortgage.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) The deposit and the documents do not form integral parts of the transaction and hence they are not essential ingredients in the creation of the mortgage.

Reasoning: The passage states that when a memorandum records additional terms, it becomes integral to the transaction and requires registration. Therefore, statement D is incorrect. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the false proposition. The deposit alone creates the mortgage, but the document recording additional terms becomes essential for those terms.

Passage X: Review of Criminal Judgments

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses criminal procedure.

The reference essentially raises the following issue: whether a child who is conferred with legislative legitimacy under Section 16(1) or 16(2) is, by reason of Section 16(3), entitled to the ancestral/coparcenary property of the parents or is the child merely entitled to the self-earned/separate property of the parents. The questions that arise are first, whether the legislative intent is to confer legitimacy on a child covered by Section 16 in a manner that makes them coparceners, and thus entitled to initiate or get a share in the partition – actual or notional; second, at what point does a specific property transition into becoming the property of the parent. For, it is solely within such property that children endowed with legislative legitimacy hold entitlement, in accordance with Section 16(3).

Holding that the consequence of legitimacy under sub-sections (1) or (2) of Section 16 is to place such an individual on an equal footing as a coparcener in the coparcenary would be contrary to the plain intendment of sub-section (3) of Section 16 of the HMA 1955 which recognises rights to or in the property only of the parents. In fact, the use of language in the negative by Section 16(3) places the position beyond the pale of doubt. We would therefore have to hold that when an individual falls within the protective ambit of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 16, they would be entitled to rights in or to the absolute property of the parents and no other person.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Revanasiddappa & Anr v. Mallikarjun 2023 INSC 783]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 46

Question: As per section 362 of Cr. P.C.(equivalent to section 403 of BNSS 2023), a criminal court has power to review or alter its own judgment or order only under the following circumstances.

(A) If there is an error as to the question of fact.
(B) If there is an error as to the question of law.
(C) If there is/are clerical and arithmetical errors.
(D) If the judgment or order is rendered per in curium.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) If there is/are clerical and arithmetical errors.

Reasoning: Section 362 CrPC (now Section 403 BNSS) bars courts from reviewing or altering their own judgments except for clerical or arithmetical errors. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the statutory restriction. The principle of functus officio applies – once a court signs a judgment, its task is complete.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 47

Question: The bench in this case referred to a distinction drawn previously in Grindlays Bank case, that of procedural review and substantive review by criminal courts. Which of the following statements most accurately captures the distinction between the two decisions?

(A) A procedural review is exercised when a higher court finds an error in interpretation, while a substantive review is limited to correcting factual inaccuracies within the same court.
(B) A procedural review is available only in appellate courts, whereas a substantive review may be conducted by the original court that issued in court.
(C) A procedural review is inherent or implied in a court to set aside a palpably erroneous order passed under misapprehension by it. However, a substantive review is when error sought to be corrected is one of law and is apparent on the face of the record.
(D) A procedural review involves correcting errors of judgement made after hearing the parties while a substantive review is confined to omissions in recording of legal reasoning.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) A procedural review is inherent or implied in a court to set aside a palpably erroneous order passed under misapprehension by it. However, a substantive review is when error sought to be corrected is one of law and is apparent on the face of the record.

Reasoning: The passage distinguishes between procedural review (correcting orders passed under misapprehension) and substantive review (correcting errors of law apparent on record). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the judicial distinction. Section 362 bars substantive review but not procedural review to correct palpable errors.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 48

Question: According to the Supreme Court’s analysis, under which principle did the High Court claim to recall its Judgment, even though the Supreme Court ultimately rejected this basis?

(A) Ex debito justitiae, to correct a factual error not brought to its notice earlier.
(B) Inherent power under Section 482 of the CrPC to prevent the abuse of the process of any Court.
(C) The power of a criminal court to conduct a “substantive review” on the merits of the case.
(D) The binding nature of the Supreme Court’s earlier Judgment which mandated a decision on the perjury application.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Inherent power under Section 482 of the CrPC to prevent the abuse of the process of any Court.

Reasoning: The passage mentions that courts cannot use Section 482 to “circumvent an explicit bar” of Section 362. The High Court apparently claimed inherent power under 482, which the Supreme Court rejected. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the claimed but rejected basis. Section 482 cannot override the statutory bar in Section 362.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 49

Question: The court identified certain exceptional circumstances wherein the criminal court is empowered to alter or review its own judgement or a final order under Section 362 (CrPC). Which of the following is NOT one among them:

(A) Such power is expressly conferred upon court by law
(B) The court passing such a judgement or order lacked inherent jurisdiction to do so
(C) Fact relating to non-serving of necessary party being non-represented, not brought to notice of court while passing such judgment or order
(D) A subsequent judicial precedent renders the earlier judgment legally untenable

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) A subsequent judicial precedent renders the earlier judgment legally untenable

Reasoning: Section 362 exceptions include: express statutory power, lack of inherent jurisdiction, and non-service of necessary party. A subsequent precedent is NOT an exception – that would be substantive review, which is barred. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies what is NOT an exception. The Court cannot review its judgment simply because law has changed.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 50

Question: In relation to exceptional circumstances identified by the court under which the embargo on criminal courts to review or alter their judgement or final order after signing under Section 362 (CrPC) would not apply, which of the following statements is correct?

I. The exceptions are exercisable only if a ground that is raised was not available or existent at the time of original proceedings before the Court
II. The said power cannot be invoked as a means to circumvent the finality of the judicial process or mistakes and/or errors in the decision which are attributable to a conscious omission by the parties.

Select the most appropriate option:

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are incorrect

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Both I and II are correct

Reasoning: Both statements accurately describe the limitations on the exceptions to Section 362. The exceptions cannot be used to review decisions based on grounds that existed earlier, nor can they circumvent finality or correct errors due to party omissions. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the strict interpretation of the exceptions. The bar is applied stricto sensu.

Passage XI: Extortion

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers criminal law.

A glance over all the Sections related to extortion would reveal a clear distinction being carried out between the actual commission of extortion and the process of putting a person in fear for the purpose of committing extortion.

Section 383 defines extortion, the punishment therefor is given in Section 384. Sections 386 and 388 provide for an aggravated form of extortion. These sections deal with the actual commission of an act of extortion, whereas Sections 385, 387 and 389 IPC seek to punish for an act committed for the purpose of extortion even though the act of extortion may not be complete and property not delivered. It is in the process of committing an offence that a person is put in fear of injury, death or grievous hurt. Section 387 IPC provides for a stage prior to committing extortion, which is putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt ‘in order to commit extortion’, similar to Section 385 IPC. Hence, Section 387 IPC is an aggravated form of 385 IPC, not 384 IPC.

Having deliberated upon the offence of extortion and its forms, we proceed to analyze the essentials of both Sections, i.e.,383 and 387 IPC, the High Court dealt with.

[Extracted from Balaji Traders v. State of UP, 2025 INSC 806]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 51

Question: According to the Supreme Court’s analysis in the judgment, Section 387 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with:

(A) The actual commission of the act of extortion by putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt.
(B) The punishment for a completed act of extortion by putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt.
(C) The process or stage prior to committing extortion, specifically putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion.
(D) A lesser, non-aggravated form of extortion defined in Section 383 IPC.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The process or stage prior to committing extortion, specifically putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “Section 387 IPC provides for a stage prior to committing extortion, which is putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt ‘in order to commit extortion’.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the analysis. It’s not about completed extortion (A, B) nor a lesser form (D).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 52

Question: The core difference between Section 383/384 IPC (Extortion/Punishment) and Section 387 IPC (Putting person in fear of death or grievous hurt, in order to commit extortion), as established by the Supreme Court, is that:

(A) Section 387 IPC requires the use of firearms, whereas Section 383/384 IPC does not.
(B) Section 383/384 IPC deals with the actual commission of extortion and requires delivery of property, while Section 387 IPC deals with the process (putting a person in fear) and does not require the delivery of property.
(C) Section 383/384 IPC is an aggravated form of Section 387 IPC.
(D) Section 387 IPC involves only an attempt, while Section 383/384 IPC involves a completed offence.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Section 383/384 IPC deals with the actual commission of extortion and requires delivery of property, while Section 387 IPC deals with the process (putting a person in fear) and does not require the delivery of property.

Reasoning: The passage distinguishes between actual commission (383/384) and the preparatory stage (387). Extortion requires putting in fear AND obtaining property; 387 focuses only on the fear element. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the distinction. Delivery of property is essential for completed extortion but not for the preparatory offence.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 53

Question: What is the minimum essential ingredient that the Supreme Court found prima facie disclosed in the complaint for an offence under Section 387 IPC?

(A) The transfer of at least Rs. 5 lakhs from the complainant to the accused.
(B) The use of rifles, a specific type of weapon.
(C) Putting the complainant in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion, such as by pointing a gun and demanding Rs. 5 lakhs per month.
(D) The existence of pending litigation regarding Trademark and Copyright claims.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Putting the complainant in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion, such as by pointing a gun and demanding Rs. 5 lakhs per month.

Reasoning: The passage indicates that the essential ingredient is putting someone in fear of death/grievous hurt for extortion. The example given (pointing gun, demanding money) illustrates this. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the core element. No actual property transfer (A) is needed, and specific weapons (B) or unrelated litigation (D) are irrelevant.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 54

Question: The Supreme Court cites which of the following as a well-settled principle of law regarding the interpretation of penal statutes?

(A) Penal statutes must be given a wide and flexible interpretation to cover all intended mischief.
(B) Courts are competent to stretch the meaning of an expression used by the Legislature to carry out the intention of the Legislature.
(C) If two possible and reasonable constructions can be put upon a penal provision, the Court must lean towards the construction that imposes the maximum penalty.
(D) If two possible and reasonable constructions can be put upon a penal provision, the Court must lean towards that construction which exempts the subject from penalty rather than the one which imposes penalty.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) If two possible and reasonable constructions can be put upon a penal provision, the Court must lean towards that construction which exempts the subject from penalty rather than the one which imposes penalty.

Reasoning: This is the well-established principle of strict construction of penal statutes – in doubt, favor the accused. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 states the rule of lenity. Options A, B, and C are contrary to this principle, suggesting expansive or flexible interpretation which is not permitted in criminal law.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 55

Question: The Supreme Court’s final decision on the appeal filed by M/s. Balaji Traders was to:

(A) Dismiss the appeal and uphold the High Court’s quashing order.
(B) Dismiss the appeal but modify the charge to Section 384 IPC.
(C) Allow the appeal, set aside the High Court’s order, and restore the proceedings of Complaint case to the file of the Trial Court.
(D) Allow the appeal and transfer the case to the High Court for a fresh hearing on merits.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Allow the appeal, set aside the High Court’s order, and restore the proceedings of Complaint case to the file of the Trial Court.

Reasoning: The passage is extracted from a judgment allowing the appeal and restoring proceedings. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 infers the outcome from the context. The Supreme Court found that Section 387 was prima facie made out and the High Court erred in quashing, so it restored the case for trial.

Passage XII: Hindu Marriage Act & Coparcenary

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses family law.

The reference essentially raises the following issue: whether a child who is conferred with legislative legitimacy under Section 16(1) or 16(2) is, by reason of Section 16(3), entitled to the ancestral/coparcenary property of the parents or is the child merely entitled to the self-earned/separate property of the parents. The questions that arise are first, whether the legislative intent is to confer legitimacy on a child covered by Section 16 in a manner that makes them coparceners, and thus entitled to initiate or get a share in the partition – actual or notional; second, at what point does a specific property transition into becoming the property of the parent. For, it is solely within such property that children endowed with legislative legitimacy hold entitlement, in accordance with Section 16(3).

Holding that the consequence of legitimacy under sub-sections (1) or (2) of Section 16 is to place such an individual on an equal footing as a coparcener in the coparcenary would be contrary to the plain intendment of sub-section (3) of Section 16 of the HMA 1955 which recognises rights to or in the property only of the parents. In fact, the use of language in the negative by Section 16(3) places the position beyond the pale of doubt. We would therefore have to hold that when an individual falls within the protective ambit of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 16, they would be entitled to rights in or to the absolute property of the parents and no other person.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Revanasiddappa & Anr v. Mallikarjun 2023 INSC 783]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 56

Question: When a Hindu Mitakshara coparcener, who has a child legitimised under section 16 of Hindu Marriage Act 1955, dies intestate, after the 2005 Amendment of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, what is the legal mechanism that determines the child’s share in the parent’s interest in the coparcenary property?

(A) The Child becomes a coparcener by birth, and the entire coparcenary property is divided equally amongst all the coparceners.
(B) The parent’s interest devolves by traditional rule of survivorship, and the section 16 child receives no share
(C) The parent’s interest is first determined through a notional partition immediately before death under section 6 (3) of Hindu Succession Act 1956 and this determined share then devolves by intestate succession to all the deceased’s children (including the section 16 child) under section 8/10 of Hindu Succession Act 1956.
(D) The share of section 16 child is limited to receiving maintenance from the joint family estate.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The parent’s interest is first determined through a notional partition immediately before death under section 6 (3) of Hindu Succession Act 1956 and this determined share then devolves by intestate succession to all the deceased’s children (including the section 16 child) under section 8/10 of Hindu Succession Act 1956.

Reasoning: After 2005 amendment, a coparcener’s interest devolves by testamentary/intestate succession, not survivorship. The Court first determines the share through notional partition, then that share devolves to all children including Section 16 children. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the complex interplay between HMA and HSA. Section 16(3) limits rights to parent’s property, not coparcenary as a whole.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 57

Question: From the decisions rendered by the Supreme Court on this issue, which of the following correctly states the legal position of a child conferred with legitimacy under section 16 of Hindu Marriage Act

(A) Such a child is a coparcener
(B) Such a child is not a coparcener
(C) Such a child is a coparcener, and has the power to seek partition of coparcenary property
(D) Such a child is a coparcener, but does not have the power to seek partition of coparcenary property

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Such a child is not a coparcener

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that treating Section 16 children as coparceners would be contrary to Section 16(3). They have rights in parent’s property, not coparcenary rights. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 clarifies the limited rights. They are legitimate for succession purposes but don’t become coparceners by birth.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 58

Question: Consider the following statements:

I. A child born out of a null and void marriage is considered as legitimate by law
II. Conferment of legitimacy is irrespective of whether such child was born before or after the commencement of the Amending Act 1976

Select the most appropriate option:

(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are incorrect

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Both I and II are correct

Reasoning: Section 16 of HMA legitimizes children of void/voidable marriages. The 1976 amendment made this provision retrospective, covering children born before or after the amendment. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the protective scope of Section 16. The law aims to protect innocent children from the stigma of their parents’ invalid marriages.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 59

Question: Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the property rights of children from void/voidable marriages

(A) Such a child can ask for partition of coparcenary property
(B) Such a child can claim share in their own right in the undivided coparcenary property of his parents
(C) Such a child has rights only to self-acquired property of his parents
(D) Such a child cannot ask for partition of coparcenary property

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Such a child cannot ask for partition of coparcenary property

Reasoning: Section 16(3) limits rights to parent’s property, not coparcenary property. They cannot demand partition of ancestral property. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 clarifies the limitation. Their rights are limited to succession to parent’s share, not coparcenary membership.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 60

Question: Which of the following best summarises the conclusion reached by the Supreme Court regarding children conferred with legitimacy under Section 16 under the Hindu Marriage Act?

(A) Such children are entitled to coparcenary rights in the ancestral property to their parents, equal to children born within a valid marriage
(B) Such children are entitled only to the self-acquired or separate property of their parents, and not to ancestral/coparcenary property
(C) Such children are entitled to inherit property only if no legitimate heirs exist from a valid marriage
(D) Such children have no rights in any property of the parents, whether self-acquired or ancestral

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Such children are entitled only to the self-acquired or separate property of their parents, and not to ancestral/coparcenary property

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states they have rights “in or to the absolute property of the parents and no other person,” meaning they share in parent’s property but don’t have independent coparcenary rights. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the nuanced position. They succeed to parent’s share in ancestral property upon parent’s death, but don’t become coparceners.

Passage XIII: Live-in Relationships & DV Act

CLAT PG answer key 2026 addresses contemporary family law.

Live-in relationship, as such, as already indicated, is a relationship which has not been socially accepted in India, unlike many other countries. In Lata Singh v. State of U.P. [(2006) 5 SCC 475: (2006) 2 SCC (Cri) 478] it was observed that a live-in relationship between two consenting adults of heterosexual sex does not amount to any offence even though it may be perceived as immoral. However, in order to provide a remedy in civil law for protection of women, from being victims of such relationship, and to prevent the occurrence of domestic violence in the society, first time in India, the DV Act has been enacted to cover the couple having relationship in the nature of marriage, persons related by consanguinity, marriages, etc.

We have few other legislations also where reliefs have been provided to woman placed in certain vulnerable situations. Section 125 CrPC, of course, provides for maintenance of a destitute wife and Section 498-A IPC is related to mental cruelty inflicted on women by her husband and in-laws. Section 304-B IPC deals with the cases relating to dowry death. The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 was enacted to deal with the cases of dowry demands by the husband and family members. The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 provides for grant of maintenance to a legally wedded Hindu wife, and also deals with rules for adoption. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 refers to the provisions dealing with solemnisation of marriage also deals with the provisions for divorce.

For the first time, though, the DV Act, Parliament has recognised a “relationship in the nature of marriage” and not a live-in relationship simpliciter. We have already stated, when we examine whether a relationship will fall within the expression “relationship in the nature of marriage” within the meaning of Section 2(f) of the DV Act, we should have a close analysis of the entire relationship. Invariably, it may be a question of fact and degree, whether a relationship between two unrelated persons of the opposite sex meets the tests judicially evolved.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma, (2013) 15 SCC 755]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 61

Question: What is the scope of analysis required to determine if a relationship falls within the expression “relationship in the nature of marriage” under Section 2(f) of the DV Act?

(A) Considering the number of children born in a live in relationship.
(B) Considering only the cohabitation period of the relationship and their emotional connectivity.
(C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets.
(D) Evaluating only the financial aspects and mutual agreements of the relationship, and if there is any written agreement between the partner.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Conducting a close analysis of the entire interpersonal relationship, taking into account all facets.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “we should have a close analysis of the entire relationship” and “it may be a question of fact and degree.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the holistic approach required. No single factor (children, duration, finance) is determinative; all aspects must be considered.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 62

Question: In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court read down the word “adult male” in Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

(A) Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma (2013) 15 SCC 755
(B) Hiral P Harsora v. Kusum Harsora, (Manu/SC/1269/2016)
(C) Uma Narayanan v. Priya Krishna Prasad, (Laws (Mad) 2008-8-28)
(D) D Velusamy v. D Patchaiammal (AIR 2011 SC 479)

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Hiral P Harsora v. Kusum Harsora, (Manu/SC/1269/2016)

Reasoning: In Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Harsora (2016), the Supreme Court held that “adult male” in Section 2(q) is discriminatory and read it down to include any “adult” irrespective of gender, making women also liable as respondents. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests knowledge of significant DV Act amendments. The Court found the male-specific language violated Article 14.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 63

Question: As per section 20 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, while disposing of an application under Section 12(1), the Magistrate may direct the respondent to pay monetary relief to the aggrieved person so that the aggrieved person can:

(A) Live a life that meets at least the bare minimum needs for survival and basic well-being.
(B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed.
(C) Live a life that is consistent with her parent’s standard of living.
(D) Live a life which can cover her medical expenses and expenses incurred due to litigation of domestic violence.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Live a life that is consistent with her standard of living which she is accustomed.

Reasoning: Section 20(1)(d) of the DV Act specifically mentions “monetary relief to meet the expenses incurred and losses suffered by the aggrieved person and any child of the aggrieved person as a result of the domestic violence, and such relief may include, but is not limited to… maintenance for the aggrieved person as well as her children, if any, including an order under or in addition to an order of maintenance under section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, or any other law for the time being in force.” The standard is the accustomed standard of living. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the DV Act’s generous provision.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 64

Question: In which case, the three judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court has recently interpreted the term “shared household” and has held that “…lives or at any stage has lived in a domestic relationship…” have to be given its normal and purposeful meaning. The living of woman in a household has to refer to a living which has some permanency. Mere fleeting or casual living at different places shall not make a shared household.

(A) Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja, AIR 2020 SC 2483
(B) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra AIR 2002 SC 177
(C) S.R. Batra v. Tarun Batra (2007) 3 SCC 169
(D) B.R. Mehta Vs. Atma Devi (1987) 4 SCC 183

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja, AIR 2020 SC 2483

Reasoning: In Satish Chander Ahuja v. Sneha Ahuja (2020), the Supreme Court interpreted “shared household” broadly to include properties where the woman lived with her husband, including ancestral properties of the husband, provided there was some permanency. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the recent authoritative interpretation. The Court overruled the restrictive view in S.R. Batra.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 65

Question: Under Indian Law, can a woman in a live in relationship claim maintenance under S. 125, CrPC despite not being a legally wedded wife?

(A) No, as per the interpretation of statute ‘wife’ means legally wedded wife and includes who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from her husband.
(B) Yes, a woman in a live in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, CrPC as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation.’
(C) A woman in live in relationship can only claim maintenance if she has been cohabiting for more than five years and dependent children from the relationship.
(D) A woman in live in relationship can claim maintenance only through a civil suit as the protection of women from domestic violence act 2005 (PWDVA) does not apply to live in relationships.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Yes, a woman in a live in relationship can claim maintenance u/s 125, CrPC as strict proof of marriage is not necessary and maintenance cannot be denied if evidence suggests cohabitation.

Reasoning: In Chanmuniya v. Virendra Kumar Singh (2010) and subsequent cases, the Supreme Court held that women in live-in relationships resembling marriage can claim maintenance under Section 125 if there’s evidence of long cohabitation and domestic arrangement. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the liberal interpretation. The Court looks at substance over form.

Passage XIV: Income Tax & Share Capital

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers corporate taxation.

“Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which is an inclusive definition, inter alia, provides that relinquishment of an asset or extinguishment of any right therein amounts to a transfer of a capital asset. While the taxpayer continues to remain a shareholder of the company even with the reduction of share capital, it could not be accepted that there was no extinguishment of any part of his right as a shareholder qua the company.

A company under Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013 has a right to reduce the share capital and one of the modes which could be adopted is to reduce the face value of the preference share.

When as a result of reducing the face value of the share, the share capital is reduced, the right of the preference shareholder to the dividend or his share capital and the right to share in the distribution of the net assets upon liquidation is extinguished proportionately to the extent of reduction in the capital. Such a reduction of the right of the capital asset clearly amounts to a transfer within the meaning of section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.”

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Principal Commissioner of Income Tax v. Jupiter Capital Pvt Ltd., (2025 INSC 38)]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 66

Question: What was the core issue before the Supreme Court in this Special Leave Petition filed by the Income Tax Department?

(A) Whether the assessee’s claim for a long-term capital gain was correctly disallowed by the Assessing Officer.
(B) Whether the reduction in the number of shares due to a reduction in share capital amounted to a “transfer” under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, allowing for a capital loss claim.
(C) Whether the High Court of Karnataka correctly relied on the decision of Anarkali Sarabhai v. CIT.
(D) Whether the face value of the shares remaining the same after the reduction nullified the claim of capital loss.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Whether the reduction in the number of shares due to a reduction in share capital amounted to a “transfer” under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, allowing for a capital loss claim.

Reasoning: The passage discusses whether reduction in share capital (which reduces shareholder rights) constitutes a “transfer” under Section 2(47). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the core tax issue. The IT Department was challenging the taxpayer’s claim that capital reduction resulting in loss of rights was a transfer.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 67

Question: According to the Supreme Court, why does a reduction in share capital that proportionately reduces a shareholder’s rights amount to a “transfer” under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

(A) Because the shareholder’s voting percentage remains constant, which is a form of continuous transfer.
(B) Because it involves a sale or exchange of the capital asset to another party.
(C) Because it is covered under the inclusive definition of “transfer” as an extinguishment of any rights in the capital asset.
(D) Because the face value of the shares remains unchanged, constituting a deemed transfer.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Because it is covered under the inclusive definition of “transfer” as an extinguishment of any rights in the capital asset.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that Section 2(47) includes “relinquishment of an asset or extinguishment of any right therein” and that reduction extinguishes rights proportionately. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly applies the statutory definition. The extinguishment of rights is the key factor, not sale or exchange.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 68

Question: The Supreme Court clarified a principle regarding the computation of capital gains/loss under Section 48 of the Income Tax Act. What was this clarification?

(A) That the reduction of share capital must result in a change in the percentage of shareholding.
(B) That the face value of the shares must be reduced for the transfer to be valid.
(C) That the transfer must be a sale or relinquishment, and not merely an extinguishment of rights.
(D) That receipt of some consideration in lieu of the extinguishment of rights is not a condition precedent for the computation of capital gains/loss.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) That receipt of some consideration in lieu of the extinguishment of rights is not a condition precedent for the computation of capital gains/loss.

Reasoning: The Court held that extinguishment of rights itself is a transfer under Section 2(47), regardless of whether consideration is received. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 clarifies that consideration is not required for transfer to be recognized. The loss stems from diminished rights, not from lack of consideration.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 69

Question: The Supreme Court, in its summary of the principles from Kartikeya V. Sarabhai, stated that the right of a preference shareholder is extinguished proportionately to the extent of the capital reduction. Which of the following two specific rights were mentioned as being extinguished?

(A) Right to voting power and right to attend general meetings.
(B) Right to proportional share of debt and right to appoint directors.
(C) Right to dividend/share capital and right to share in the distribution of net assets upon liquidation.
(D) Right to face value of the share and right to receive consideration.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Right to dividend/share capital and right to share in the distribution of net assets upon liquidation.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly mentions “the right of the preference shareholder to the dividend or his share capital and the right to share in the distribution of the net assets upon liquidation is extinguished proportionately.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the rights affected. These are the core economic rights of a preference shareholder.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 70

Question: The Supreme Court emphasized that the expression “extinguishment of any right therein” is of wide import. What does this expression cover?

(A) Only transactions involving the sale or exchange of tangible capital assets.
(B) Only transactions resulting in the destruction, annihilation, or extinction of the entire capital asset.
(C) Every possible transaction that results in the destruction, annihilation, extinction, termination, cessation, or cancellation of all or any of the bundle of rights-qualitative or quantitative-that the assessee has in a capital asset.
(D) Only transactions where the face value of the shares is compulsorily reduced by a court order.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Every possible transaction that results in the destruction, annihilation, extinction, termination, cessation, or cancellation of all or any of the bundle of rights-qualitative or quantitative-that the assessee has in a capital asset.

Reasoning: The passage states the definition is inclusive and wide, covering any extinguishment of rights. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the broad interpretation. It’s not limited to sale/exchange (A) or complete destruction (B), but any diminution of rights.

Passage XV: Contract & Time

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers contract law.

“Section 55 of the Indian Contract Act says that when a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing within a specified time but fails to do so, the contract or so much of it as has not been performed, becomes voidable at the option of the promisee if the intention of the parties was that time should be of the essence of the contract. If time is not the essence of the contract, the contract does not become voidable by the failure to do such thing on or before the specified time but the promisee is entitled to compensation from the promisor for any loss occasioned to him by such failure. Further, if in case of a contract voidable on account of the promisor’s failure to perform his promise within the time agreed and the promisee accepts performance of such promise at any time other than that agreed, the promisee cannot claim compensation for any loss occasioned by the non-performance of the promise at the time agreed, unless, at the time of such acceptance he gives notice to the promisor of his intention to do so.

Sections 73 and 74 deal with consequences of breach of contract. Heading of Section 73 is compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract. When a contract is broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive from the party who has broken the contract compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach or which the parties knew when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of it. On the other hand, Section 74 deals with compensation for breach of contract where penalty is stipulated for. When a contract is broken, if a sum is mentioned in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach or if the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the party complaining of the breach is entitled whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby, to receive from the party who has broken the contract reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or the penalty stipulated for.”

[Extracted from: Consolidated Construction Consortium Limited v Software Technology Parks of India 2025 INSC 574]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 71

Question: Whether time is of essence or not is a question of fact, and the real test is the parties’ intention. Which amongst the following is not correct in ascertaining the intention of the parties with respect to “time is of essence”.

(A) The express words used in the contract.
(B) The nature of the property which forms the subject-matter of the contract.
(C) The nature of the contract and the surrounding circumstances.
(D) The nature of the contract that provides for an extension of time or liquidated damages for delays

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) The nature of the contract that provides for an extension of time or liquidated damages for delays

Reasoning: While extension clauses and liquidated damages are relevant, they don’t definitively prove time is NOT of essence. In fact, a liquidated damages clause may suggest time IS of essence. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the incorrect proposition. The presence of such clauses is neutral or may even suggest time is important.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 72

Question: Which of the following is NOT a leading judgement on section (74) of the Indian Contract Act:

(A) Kailash Nath Associates v Delhi Development Authority 1 SCR 627.
(B) ONGC Ltd v Saw Pipes Ltd (2003) 5 SCC 705.
(C) Fateh Chand v Balkishan Dass (1964) 1 SCR 515.
(D) Satyabrata Ghose v Mugneeram Bangur & Co 1954 SCR 310.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Satyabrata Ghose v Mugneeram Bangur & Co 1954 SCR 310.

Reasoning: Satyabrata Ghose is a leading case on Section 56 (frustration), not Section 74 (penalty). All other cases are landmark Section 74 decisions. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests knowledge of case law subject matter. The Satyabrata case established the modern doctrine of frustration.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 73

Question: Which of the following is a CORRECT proposition as regards award of damages in contract:

(A) In general, no damages in contract are awarded for injury to plaintiff’s feelings or for mental distress, loss of reputation or social discredit caused by the breach of contract.
(B) In general, damages in contract are awarded for anguish and vexation caused by the breach of contract.
(C) In general, damages in contract are awarded for anguish and loss of reputation, but not for social discredit caused by the breach of contract.
(D) In general, damages in contract are awarded for emotional distress, but not for mental agony caused by the breach of contract.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) In general, no damages in contract are awarded for injury to plaintiff’s feelings or for mental distress, loss of reputation or social discredit caused by the breach of contract.

Reasoning: The general rule is that contract damages are for pecuniary loss, not for mental distress or injury to feelings. Exceptions exist (e.g., marriage contracts, funeral contracts) but the general proposition is as stated. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 states the general rule. Options B, C, D incorrectly suggest mental distress damages are generally available.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 74

Question: Which of the following is/are CORRECT proposition(s) as regards the law on damages for the breach of contract under section 74 of the Indian Contract Act:

(A) Where a sum is named in the contract as a liquidated amount payable by way of damages, only reasonable compensation can be awarded not exceeding the amount so stated.
(B) In cases where the amount fixed is in the nature of penalty, only reasonable compensation can be awarded, not exceeding the penalty so stated.
(C) The expression ‘whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby’ in section 74 means that in every case the proof of actual damage or loss has been dispensed with.
(D) Both (A) and (B).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B).

Reasoning: Section 74 applies to both liquidated damages and penalty clauses – in both cases, only reasonable compensation can be awarded, not exceeding the stated amount. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 combines both correct propositions. Option C is incorrect because the expression doesn’t dispense with proof in ALL cases – it’s only when the contract specifies a sum.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 75

Question: Which section will apply to cases of forfeiture of earnest money under a contract. Where, however, forfeiture takes place under the terms and conditions of a public auction before agreement is reached, section 74 would have no application:

(A) Section 55.
(B) Section 73.
(C) Section 74.
(D) Section 75.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Section 73.

Reasoning: Forfeiture of earnest money is treated as compensation for breach, governed by Section 73 (damages for breach). Section 74 applies only when a sum is named in the contract as penalty/damages. For public auctions before agreement, Section 74 doesn’t apply as there’s no concluded contract. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 distinguishes between contractual forfeiture and pre-contractual deposits.

Passage XVI: Jurisdiction Clauses

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses contract jurisdiction.

“Law treats all contracts with equal respect and unless a contract is proved to suffer from any of the vitiating factors, the terms and conditions have to be enforced regardless of the relative strengths and weakness of the parties.

Section 28 of the Contract Act does not bar exclusive jurisdiction clauses. What has been barred is the absolute restriction of any party from approaching a legal forum. The right to legal adjudication cannot be taken away from any party through contract but can be relegated to a set of Courts for the ease of the parties. In the present dispute, the clause does not take away the right of the employee to pursue a legal claim but only restricts the employee to pursue those claims before the courts in Mumbai alone.

…the Court must already have jurisdiction to entertain such a legal claim. This limb pertains to the fact that a contract cannot confer jurisdiction on a court that did not have such jurisdiction in the first place.”

[Extracted from: Rakesh Kumar Verma v HDFC Bank Ltd 2025 INSC 473]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 76

Question: Which of the following propositions is CORRECT:

(A) It is, in general, open to the contracting parties to confer by their agreement jurisdiction on a court which does not possess the jurisdiction under the law.
(B) It is not open to the contracting parties to confer by their agreement jurisdiction on a court which does not possess the jurisdiction under the law.
(C) It is open to the contracting parties to confer by their written and registered agreement jurisdiction on a court which does not possess the jurisdiction under the law.
(D) If it is absolutely in the interest of the contracting parties, then only it is open to the contracting parties to confer by their agreement jurisdiction on a court which does not possess the jurisdiction under the law.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) It is not open to the contracting parties to confer by their agreement jurisdiction on a court which does not possess the jurisdiction under the law.

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “a contract cannot confer jurisdiction on a court that did not have such jurisdiction in the first place.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the fundamental principle. Jurisdiction is a matter of law, not private agreement.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 77

Question: Which of the following propositions is NOT CORRECT about an ouster clause:

(A) Jurisdiction of civil courts is created by statute and cannot be created or conferred by consent of the parties upon a court which has not been granted jurisdiction by the law.
(B) Where two or more courts have under the law jurisdiction to try a suit or proceeding, an agreement between the parties that the dispute between them will be tried in one of such courts, is not contrary to public policy.
(C) Ouster clauses can oust the jurisdiction only of civil courts and not of the High Court, provided such jurisdiction exists in the High Court on account of part of cause of action having arisen with its territorial jurisdiction.
(D) An ouster clause is valid even if it confers exclusive jurisdiction on a court that otherwise has no territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction over the matter.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) An ouster clause is valid even if it confers exclusive jurisdiction on a court that otherwise has no territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction over the matter.

Reasoning: An ouster clause cannot confer jurisdiction where none exists. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the invalid proposition. The clause is only valid if the court already has jurisdiction. Option C is actually correct – ouster clauses can’t oust High Court’s constitutional jurisdiction.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 78

Question: Which of the following cannot be a condition for an exclusive jurisdiction clause in a contract to be valid:

(A) It should be in consonance with section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, i.e. it should not absolutely restrict any party from initiating legal proceedings pertaining to the contract.
(B) The court which the parties have chosen for exclusive jurisdiction must be competent to have such jurisdiction.
(C) The parties must either impliedly or explicitly agree to subject themselves to the jurisdiction of a specific court for the resolution of their contractual dispute.
(D) The parties agree to the jurisdiction of a court that does not have the jurisdiction over the matter under the general law.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) The parties agree to the jurisdiction of a court that does not have the jurisdiction over the matter under the general law.

Reasoning: This is the opposite of condition (B) and is invalid. An exclusive jurisdiction clause is void if it chooses a court that lacks jurisdiction. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the invalidating condition. All other options are valid requirements for such clauses.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 79

Question: Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act is subject to _________ appended to it:

(A) One exception.
(B) Two exceptions.
(C) Three exceptions.
(D) Four exceptions.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Three exceptions.

Reasoning: Section 28 has three exceptions: (1) contracts restricting enforcement of rights in certain courts if other courts remain available; (2) contracts limiting time for enforcement if period is not less than usual; (3) contracts between partners preventing them from carrying on business during subsistence of partnership. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests precise knowledge of the provision.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 80

Question: Which of the following agreements has/have been rendered void by section 28 of the Indian Contract Act:

(A) An agreement by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals.
(B) An agreement which limits the time within which any party thereto may enforce his contractual rights.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B).

Reasoning: Section 28 voids agreements that absolutely restrict legal proceedings (A) and those that limit time for enforcement below the statutory period (B). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 combines both prohibited types. However, (B) is void only if the time limit is less than what would otherwise be available.

Passage XVII: Constitutional Tort

CLAT PG answer key 2026 continues with constitutional remedies.

The law is well settled that a constitutional court can award monetary compensation against the State and its officials for its failure to safeguard fundamental rights of citizens but there is no system or method to measure the damages caused in such situations. Quite often the courts have a difficult task in determining damages in various fact situations. The yardsticks normally adopted for determining the compensation payable in private tort claims are not as such applicable when a constitutional court determines the compensation in cases where there is a violation of fundamental rights guaranteed to its citizens.

In D.K. Basu v. State of W.B. [(1997) SCC 1 416], a Constitution Bench of this Court held that there is no straitjacket formula for computation of damages and we find that there is no uniformity or yardstick followed in awarding damages for violation of fundamental rights. In Rudul Sah case [Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 4 SCC 141] this Court used the terminology ‘palliative’ for measuring the damages and the formula of ‘adhoc’ was applied. In Sebastian Hongray case [Sebastian M. Hongray v. Union of India, (1984) 3 SCC 82] the expression used by this Court for determining the monetary compensation was ‘exemplary’ costs and the formula adopted was ‘punitive’. In Bhim Singh case [Bhim Singh v. State of J & K, (1985) 4 SCC 677], the expression used by the Court was ‘compensatory’ and the formula adopted was ‘restitutive’.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 71

Question: The Supreme Court in the passage identifies different approaches/methods for awarding compensation in constitutional tort cases. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) D.K. Basu – punitive damages
(B) Rudul Sah – exemplary costs
(C) Sebastian Hongray – palliative compensation
(D) Bhim Singh – compensatory damages

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Bhim Singh – compensatory damages

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states that in Bhim Singh, the expression used was ‘compensatory’ and the formula was ‘restitutive’. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 correctly matches the case with its approach. The other options are mismatched: D.K. Basu found no straitjacket formula (not punitive), Rudul Sah used ‘palliative’ (not exemplary), and Sebastian Hongray used ‘exemplary’ (not palliative).

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 72

Question: Which of the following is NOT a factor that constitutional courts consider when awarding compensation for violation of fundamental rights?

(A) The nature and extent of the violation
(B) The monetary loss suffered by the victim
(C) The social status of the victim’s family
(D) The need to deter future violations by the State

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The social status of the victim’s family

Reasoning: Constitutional courts consider nature/extent of violation, monetary loss, and deterrence, but not social status. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the irrelevant factor. The compensation is meant to be equalizing and deterrent, not status-based.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 73

Question: The term ‘palliative’ used in Rudul Sah case signifies:

(A) Punitive damages meant to punish the State
(B) Compensation that provides temporary relief without addressing the root cause
(C) Exemplary costs to deter future violations
(D) Restitutive damages to restore the status quo

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Compensation that provides temporary relief without addressing the root cause

Reasoning: ‘Palliative’ means providing relief from symptoms without curing the underlying disease. In constitutional torts, it refers to compensation that relieves the victim’s suffering without systemic reform. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 interprets the term’s meaning in context. It’s distinct from punitive or restitutive approaches.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 74

Question: In D.K. Basu v. State of W.B., the Supreme Court held that:

(A) There is a fixed formula for computing damages in all cases of fundamental rights violations
(B) No uniform yardstick exists for awarding damages, and each case must be decided on its own facts
(C) Damages should only be awarded in cases of custodial deaths
(D) Constitutional courts cannot award damages, only High Courts can

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) No uniform yardstick exists for awarding damages, and each case must be decided on its own facts

Reasoning: The passage explicitly quotes D.K. Basu: “there is no straitjacket formula for computation of damages” and “no uniformity or yardstick followed.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the case’s holding. The Court emphasized flexibility and case-specific analysis.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 75

Question: The Supreme Court in Sebastian Hongray case used ‘exemplary’ costs with ‘punitive’ formula. This approach is primarily aimed at:

(A) Compensating the victim for actual losses
(B) Punishing the State for egregious violations
(C) Restoring the victim to their original position
(D) Providing palliative relief to the victim’s family

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Punishing the State for egregious violations

Reasoning: ‘Exemplary’ and ‘punitive’ damages are meant to punish wrongdoers and deter future misconduct, especially when the State’s conduct is particularly blameworthy. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 explains the purpose of punitive damages. It’s not about compensation (A, C) or mere relief (D), but about punishment and deterrence.

Passage XVIII: Terrorism Financing

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers anti-terrorism law.

The “International Convention for the Suppression of the Financing of Terrorism” (UNTS 1999) requires States Parties to criminalize the provision or collection of funds with the intention that they be used to carry out terrorist acts. Article 2(1) of the Convention defines the offence of financing terrorism as “any person commits an offence within the meaning of this Convention if that person by any means, directly or indirectly, unlawfully and willfully, provides or collects funds with the intention that they should be used or in the knowledge that they are to be used, in full or in part, in order to carry out” an act intended to cause death or serious bodily injury to a civilian, or to compel a government or international organization to do or abstain from doing any act.

India enacted the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA) to give effect to this Convention. Section 17 of the UAPA defines the offence of raising funds for terrorist acts. The Supreme Court has held that the mens rea requirement under Section 17 is satisfied if the accused either intends that the funds be used for terrorism or has knowledge that they are likely to be used for such purpose. The standard of proof is objective – what a reasonable person would know in the circumstances.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 76

Question: Under the UN Convention for Suppression of Financing of Terrorism, the mens rea required is:

(A) Intention that funds be used for terrorism
(B) Knowledge that funds are to be used for terrorism
(C) Either intention or knowledge that funds are to be used for terrorism
(D) Recklessness about the possible use of funds for terrorism

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Either intention or knowledge that funds are to be used for terrorism

Reasoning: Article 2(1) explicitly covers both “intention that they should be used” OR “knowledge that they are to be used.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the disjunctive requirement. The Convention provides for both direct intent and knowledge-based liability.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 77

Question: Section 17 of UAPA punishes raising funds for terrorist acts. The Supreme Court has held that:

(A) Only actual use of funds for terrorism needs to be proved, not the accused’s intention or knowledge
(B) The accused’s subjective belief about the use of funds is irrelevant
(C) The standard is objective – what a reasonable person would know in the circumstances
(D) Mere collection of funds without any specific terrorist act planned is not an offence

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The standard is objective – what a reasonable person would know in the circumstances

Reasoning: The passage states “The standard of proof is objective – what a reasonable person would know in the circumstances.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the Court’s interpretation. It’s not about the accused’s subjective belief (B) but about objective knowledge. Option A is wrong because intention/knowledge is key. Option D is incorrect because collection with knowledge is enough.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 78

Question: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for establishing the offence of terrorist financing under the UN Convention?

(A) The funds must be provided or collected unlawfully
(B) The funds must be actually used in a terrorist attack
(C) The actor must act willfully
(D) The funds must be intended to be used for terrorist acts

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The funds must be actually used in a terrorist attack

Reasoning: The Convention criminalizes the provision/collection of funds with intention/knowledge – actual use is not required. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the non-requirement. The offence is complete when funds are provided/collected with the requisite mens rea, regardless of whether they’re actually used.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 79

Question: The phrase “in full or in part” in Article 2(1) of the Convention means:

(A) Only complete funding of a terrorist act is punishable
(B) Partial funding is not sufficient if the main act is funded from other sources
(C) Even minimal contribution is punishable if intended for terrorism
(D) The amount must be substantial enough to materially support the act

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Even minimal contribution is punishable if intended for terrorism

Reasoning: “In full or in part” means any contribution, however small, is sufficient. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 interprets the phrase’s inclusive meaning. The Convention aims to catch all financing, regardless of proportion.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 80

Question: Under UAPA, the offence of terrorist financing is:

(A) Bailable
(B) Non-bailable but compoundable
(C) Non-bailable and non-compoundable
(D) Bailable with court permission

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Non-bailable and non-compoundable

Reasoning: UAPA offences are serious security threats and are generally non-bailable and non-compoundable. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the stringent nature of anti-terrorism laws. Section 43D(5) of UAPA makes it very difficult to get bail.

Passage XIX: Sedition Law

CLAT PG answer key 2026 addresses sedition law.

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defined sedition as “Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India.” The Supreme Court in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) held that Section 124A was constitutionally valid but must be interpreted narrowly – only those acts involving incitement to violence or public disorder would be punishable.

However, in recent years, there has been widespread criticism of the misuse of sedition law. In May 2022, the Supreme Court put Section 124A in abeyance pending its re-examination, effectively suspending its operation. The Government is considering replacing it with a new provision in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita that would be more specific and limited to acts endangering India’s sovereignty and integrity.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 81

Question: In Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that Section 124A is:

(A) Unconstitutional and void
(B) Constitutionally valid but must be interpreted narrowly
(C) Applicable only to acts during wartime
(D) Repealed and replaced by a new provision

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Constitutionally valid but must be interpreted narrowly

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states the Court held it “constitutionally valid but must be interpreted narrowly.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the key holding. The narrow interpretation requires incitement to violence or public disorder.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 82

Question: The Supreme Court’s 2022 order regarding Section 124A:

(A) Repealed the provision entirely
(B) Put it in abeyance pending re-examination
(C) Expanded its scope to include social media posts
(D) Made it bailable

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Put it in abeyance pending re-examination

Reasoning: The passage states “the Supreme Court put Section 124A in abeyance pending its re-examination.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the current status. The provision is effectively suspended, not repealed.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 83

Question: Under the proposed Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita provision, sedition would be limited to acts:

(A) Criticizing government policies
(B) Endangering India’s sovereignty and integrity
(C) Supporting opposition parties
(D) Engaging in peaceful protests

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Endangering India’s sovereignty and integrity

Reasoning: The passage indicates the new provision would be “more specific and limited to acts endangering India’s sovereignty and integrity.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the narrowed scope. The aim is to prevent misuse while protecting national security.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 84

Question: Which of the following would NOT be punishable under the narrow interpretation of sedition?

(A) Inciting violence against the government
(B) Creating public disorder through hate speech
(C) Peaceful criticism of government policies
(D) Advocating secession of a state from India

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Peaceful criticism of government policies

Reasoning: Under Kedar Nath’s narrow interpretation, only incitement to violence or public disorder is punishable. Peaceful criticism is protected speech under Article 19(1)(a). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 distinguishes protected speech from sedition. Options A, B, and D could potentially endanger sovereignty or public order.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 85

Question: The constitutional validity of Section 124A was upheld on the basis that:

(A) It is a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2) for maintaining public order
(B) It is an essential part of preserving national security
(C) It has historical precedent from British colonial law
(D) It is necessary to prevent foreign interference

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) It is a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2) for maintaining public order

Reasoning: The Court upheld it as a reasonable restriction on free speech under Article 19(2) grounds of public order. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the constitutional basis. The restriction must be reasonable and narrowly applied.

Passage XX: Public Interest Litigation

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses PIL jurisdiction.

“The Supreme Court has been vested with wide powers of judicial review under Article 32 of the Constitution as well as under Article 142. The Court has over the years expanded the scope of PIL to include various facets of governance. However, the Court has also cautioned against the misuse of PIL for private gain or political purposes. The Court has held that while PIL is a powerful tool for social justice, it must not become a substitute for ordinary litigation or be used as a tool for publicity.”

The Court in State of Uttaranchal v. Balwant Singh Chaufal (2010) laid down guidelines for PILs, requiring that:

1. The petitioner must have sufficient interest in the matter
2. The petition should not be motivated by personal gain
3. The petition should involve a question of public importance
4. The petition should not be frivolous or vexatious

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 86

Question: PIL can be filed in the Supreme Court under:

(A) Article 226 only
(B) Article 32 and Article 142
(C) Article 136 only
(D) Article 131 only

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Article 32 and Article 142

Reasoning: The passage mentions powers under Article 32 (constitutional remedies) and Article 142 (complete justice). This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the constitutional provisions. Article 226 is for High Courts, not Supreme Court PILs.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 87

Question: The Supreme Court in Balwant Singh Chaufal case laid down guidelines for PILs. Which of the following is NOT a requirement?

(A) The petitioner must have sufficient interest in the matter
(B) The petition should not be motivated by personal gain
(C) The petitioner must be a public spirited individual with no political affiliations
(D) The petition should not be frivolous or vexatious

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The petitioner must be a public spirited individual with no political affiliations

Reasoning: While PIL petitioners are often public-spirited, there’s no requirement of having no political affiliations. The guidelines require sufficient interest, no personal gain, public importance, and non-frivolousness. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the non-existent requirement. Political affiliation doesn’t disqualify a PIL.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 88

Question: The Supreme Court has cautioned that PIL should not:

(A) Be used for social justice
(B) Become a substitute for ordinary litigation
(C) Address questions of public importance
(D) Involve constitutional issues

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Become a substitute for ordinary litigation

Reasoning: The passage explicitly warns that PIL “must not become a substitute for ordinary litigation.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the Court’s caution. PIL is extraordinary remedy, not replacement for regular civil/criminal proceedings.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 89

Question: Which of the following is a valid ground for the Supreme Court to reject a PIL?

(A) The matter involves violation of fundamental rights
(B) The petitioner is seeking publicity
(C) The issue affects a large number of people
(D) The matter involves environmental protection

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The petitioner is seeking publicity

Reasoning: PILs motivated by publicity or personal gain can be rejected. The other options are legitimate PIL grounds. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies an invalid purpose. The Court screens out frivolous or motivated petitions.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 90

Question: The scope of PIL has been expanded to include:

(A) Only fundamental rights violations
(B) Governance issues and policy matters
(C) Private contractual disputes
(D) Only criminal trials

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Governance issues and policy matters

Reasoning: The passage mentions the Court has “expanded the scope of PIL to include various facets of governance.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the expanded jurisdiction. PIL now covers governance, environment, corruption, etc., beyond just fundamental rights.

Passage XXI: Trademark Infringement

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers intellectual property.

“Section 29(1) of the Trademarks Act, 1999 provides that a registered trademark is infringed by a person who, not being a registered proprietor or a person using by way of permitted use, uses in the course of trade a mark which is identical with, or deceptively similar to, the trademark in relation to goods or services in respect of which the trademark is registered and in such manner as to render the use of the mark likely to be taken as being used as a trademark.

The test for deceptive similarity is whether there is a likelihood of confusion on the part of the public. In Cadila Health Care Ltd. v. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Ltd. (2001) SCC 577, the Supreme Court held that for pharmaceutical products, the test of similarity must be stricter due to potential health consequences. The Court also noted that where the products are prescription drugs, the likelihood of confusion may be less because they are purchased under medical supervision.”

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 91

Question: For trademark infringement under Section 29(1), the key test is:

(A) Whether the defendant acted in bad faith
(B) Whether there is a likelihood of confusion among consumers
(C) Whether the products are identical
(D) Whether the defendant made profits from the use

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Whether there is a likelihood of confusion among consumers

Reasoning: Section 29(1) explicitly requires use “likely to be taken as being used as a trademark,” which means likelihood of confusion is the test. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the statutory standard. Bad faith (A) is relevant but not the primary test. Product identity (C) is not required, and profits (D) are irrelevant to infringement.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 92

Question: In pharmaceutical trademark cases, the Supreme Court has held that:

(A) The test for similarity is more lenient due to product differentiation
(B) The test for similarity is stricter due to potential health consequences
(C) No trademark protection is available for generic drugs
(D) Only brand names are protected, not chemical names

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The test for similarity is stricter due to potential health consequences

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “the test of similarity must be stricter due to potential health consequences.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the special approach for pharmaceuticals. The risk to health justifies stricter scrutiny.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 93

Question: Which of the following is NOT a defense to trademark infringement?

(A) Prior use
(B) Honest concurrent use
(C) Acquiescence
(D) Making higher profits than the plaintiff

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Making higher profits than the plaintiff

Reasoning: Profits are not a defense; they may be relevant to damages but don’t justify infringement. Prior use, honest concurrent use, and acquiescence are recognized defenses. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the irrelevant factor. Higher profits might actually aggravate liability.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 94

Question: The Trademarks Act, 1999 protects:

(A) Only registered trademarks
(B) Both registered and unregistered trademarks (through passing off)
(C) Only well-known trademarks
(D) Only trademarks used for more than 10 years

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Both registered and unregistered trademarks (through passing off)

Reasoning: While Sections 29-30 cover registered marks, common law passing off protects unregistered marks. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the dual protection system. The Act codifies statutory rights while common law protects unregistered marks.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 95

Question: Which of the following is NOT a well-known trademark in India?

(A) Bisleri
(B) Google
(C) Xerox
(D) Local grocery store name

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) Local grocery store name

Reasoning: Well-known trademarks have national/international recognition. A local grocery store name lacks such recognition. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 tests understanding of well-known marks. The other options are established well-known marks.

Passage XXII: Environmental Law

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers environmental jurisprudence.

“The principle of sustainable development has been recognized as a fundamental principle of environmental law in India. In Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996) 5 SCC 647, the Supreme Court held that the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are essential features of sustainable development. The Court noted that these principles are part of customary international law and must be applied in environmental litigation.

The precautionary principle places the burden of proof on the polluter to show that their actions are environmentally safe. The polluter pays principle requires that the financial costs of pollution be borne by the polluter. These principles apply even when the activity is not inherently dangerous but may cause environmental degradation.”

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 96

Question: The precautionary principle places the burden of proof on:

(A) The government to prove pollution
(B) The polluter to show actions are environmentally safe
(C) The public to prove harm
(D) The court to assess damage

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The polluter to show actions are environmentally safe

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “the precautionary principle places the burden of proof on the polluter to show that their actions are environmentally safe.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly quotes the principle. It’s a reversal of the usual burden of proof.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 97

Question: The polluter pays principle requires that:

(A) The government pays for cleanup
(B) The public bears the cost through taxes
(C) The polluter bears the financial costs
(D) The victims pay for remediation

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) The polluter bears the financial costs

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “the polluter pays principle requires that the financial costs of pollution be borne by the polluter.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 directly applies the principle. It’s about internalizing environmental costs.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 98

Question: These environmental principles apply:

(A) Only to inherently dangerous activities
(B) Even when activity is not inherently dangerous but may cause degradation
(C) Only to industrial activities
(D) Only after environmental damage is proved

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Even when activity is not inherently dangerous but may cause degradation

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states “These principles apply even when the activity is not inherently dangerous but may cause environmental degradation.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the broad application. The principles are preventive, not limited to dangerous industries.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 99

Question: The principle of sustainable development was recognized in:

(A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum case
(B) Bhopal Gas Tragedy case
(C) Oleum Gas Leak case
(D) Ganga Pollution case

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum case

Reasoning: The passage explicitly references Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996) as recognizing sustainable development. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the foundational case. While other cases also dealt with environmental issues, Vellore is the key sustainable development case.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 100

Question: Which of the following is NOT a principle of sustainable development?

(A) Precautionary principle
(B) Polluter pays principle
(C) Absolute liability principle
(D) Inter-generational equity

CLAT PG answer key 2026 Answer: (C) Absolute liability principle

Reasoning: While absolute liability is an environmental law principle (from Oleum Gas Leak case), it’s not one of the core sustainable development principles. The passage mentions precautionary and polluter pays as features of sustainable development. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 distinguishes between related but distinct principles.

Passage XXIII: Arbitration Agreement

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers arbitration law.

“An arbitration agreement must be in writing. Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:
(a) a document signed by the parties;
(b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement; or
(c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.

The Supreme Court has held that the requirement of writing is satisfied even if the arbitration clause is incorporated by reference to another document, provided the reference is clear and unambiguous. In M.R. Engineers and Contractors (P) Ltd. v. Som Datt Builders Ltd. (2009) 7 SCC 696, the Court held that general reference to standard terms containing arbitration clause is sufficient if the document is specifically identified.”

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 101

Question: An arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:

(A) A document signed by the parties
(B) An exchange of emails providing a record of agreement
(C) An exchange of statements of claim and defence where agreement is alleged and not denied
(D) All of the above

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (D) All of the above

Reasoning: Section 7(4) explicitly lists all three as valid forms of written arbitration agreements. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 combines all correct options. The Act is liberal in recognizing written form through various modern means.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 102

Question: Incorporation of arbitration clause by reference is valid if:

(A) The reference is general and vague
(B) The reference is clear and unambiguous
(C) The main contract is oral
(D) The arbitration clause is in a separate unsigned document

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) The reference is clear and unambiguous

Reasoning: The passage states the reference must be “clear and unambiguous.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the precision required. General references may be insufficient unless the document is specifically identified.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 103

Question: In M.R. Engineers case, the Supreme Court held that:

(A) Only express mention of arbitration clause is valid
(B) General reference to standard terms is insufficient
(C) General reference to standard terms is sufficient if document is specifically identified
(D) Arbitration clauses cannot be in standard terms

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) General reference to standard terms is sufficient if document is specifically identified

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states this holding. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the Court’s liberal approach. Specific identification of the document containing the clause is key.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 104

Question: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid arbitration agreement under Section 7?

(A) It must be in writing
(B) It must be signed by both parties
(C) It must show clear intention to arbitrate
(D) It can be in electronic form

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) It must be signed by both parties

Reasoning: While writing is required, signature is not mandatory if the agreement is evidenced by exchange of communications or conduct. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the non-requirement. Section 7(4)(b) allows telecommunication records without signatures.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 105

Question: An arbitration clause in a bill of lading is:

(A) Invalid because it’s not separately signed
(B) Valid if it incorporates the charter party arbitration clause by clear reference
(C) Invalid in all cases
(D) Valid only for maritime disputes

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Valid if it incorporates the charter party arbitration clause by clear reference

Reasoning: The Supreme Court has upheld arbitration clauses in bills of lading that incorporate charter party clauses by reference. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects commercial law practice. The key is clear incorporation, not separate signature.

Passage XXIV: Corporate Social Responsibility

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now covers company law. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) for companies meeting certain thresholds. The section requires companies with net worth of Rs. 500 crore or more, or turnover of Rs. 1,000 crore or more, or net profit of Rs. 5 crore or more during any financial year to spend at least 2% of average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.

The Board shall ensure that the company spends the prescribed amount. If the company fails to spend, the Board shall specify reasons for not spending in its report. Schedule VII specifies the activities that qualify as CSR, including eradicating hunger, promoting education, gender equality, environmental sustainability, protection of national heritage, and contributions to Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 106

Question: Which companies are required to comply with CSR provisions under Section 135?

(A) All companies regardless of size
(B) Only public limited companies
(C) Companies meeting net worth/turnover/profit thresholds
(D) Only government companies

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Companies meeting net worth/turnover/profit thresholds

Reasoning: Section 135 applies to companies with net worth ≥500cr OR turnover ≥1,000cr OR net profit ≥5cr. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the specific thresholds. It’s not universal or limited to public/government companies.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 107

Question: The minimum amount to be spent on CSR is:

(A) 1% of average net profits of three preceding years
(B) 2% of average net profits of three preceding years
(C) 5% of average net profits of three preceding years
(D) 10% of average net profits of three preceding years

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) 2% of average net profits of three preceding years

Reasoning: Section 135 explicitly mandates 2% of average net profits. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 states the statutory percentage. The calculation base is clearly specified in the Act.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 108

Question: If a company fails to spend the CSR amount, it must:

(A) Pay penalty equal to the unspent amount
(B) Specify reasons in Board report
(C) Carry forward to next year mandatorily
(D) Lose its corporate status

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Specify reasons in Board report

Reasoning: Section 135 requires the Board to specify reasons for not spending in its report. There’s no automatic penalty, but failure to comply can attract action. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the disclosure requirement. The law emphasizes transparency rather than automatic penalties.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 109

Question: Which of the following is NOT a CSR activity under Schedule VII?

(A) Eradicating hunger
(B) Promoting education
(C) Paying employee salaries
(D) Environmental sustainability

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Paying employee salaries

Reasoning: Schedule VII lists specific social activities; employee salaries are business expenses, not CSR. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 distinguishes CSR from normal business operations. Salaries are operational costs, not social responsibility expenditures.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 110

Question: CSR activities must be undertaken:

(A) Only in the company’s home state
(B) Only in rural areas
(C) In India, preferably in local areas where company operates
(D) Only in urban slums

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) In India, preferably in local areas where company operates

Reasoning: The rules specify that CSR should be undertaken in India, preferably in local areas where the company operates. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the geographical focus. The preference is for local impact, but it’s not mandatory.

Passage XXV: Insolvency & Guarantees

CLAT PG answer key 2026 now addresses insolvency law.

“Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor unless otherwise provided in the contract. However, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) has changed the legal landscape for guarantors. The Supreme Court in Lalit Kumar Jain v. Union of India (2021) 7 SCC 766 held that release of principal debtor under Section 31 of IBC does not discharge the guarantor’s liability. The guarantor’s liability is independent and continues despite the resolution plan being approved.”

“The moratorium under Section 14 of IBC applies to the corporate debtor, not to personal guarantors. Guarantors can be proceeded against even during the moratorium period. The Code provides for separate insolvency resolution for personal guarantors under Part III.”

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 111

Question: Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, the surety’s liability is:

(A) Always less than the principal debtor
(B) Co-extensive with the principal debtor
(C) Always more than the principal debtor
(D) Unrelated to the principal debtor

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Co-extensive with the principal debtor

Reasoning: Section 128 explicitly states the surety’s liability is co-extensive with the principal debtor’s. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the statutory provision. It’s the default rule unless the contract provides otherwise.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 112

Question: In Lalit Kumar Jain case, the Supreme Court held that:

(A) Guarantor is discharged when principal debtor is released under IBC
(B) Guarantor’s liability is independent and continues despite IBC resolution
(C) Moratorium applies to guarantors
(D) Guarantors cannot be proceeded against during CIRP

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Guarantor’s liability is independent and continues despite IBC resolution

Reasoning: The passage explicitly states this holding. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the key ratio. The Court distinguished between corporate debtor’s release and guarantor’s continuing liability.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 113

Question: The moratorium under Section 14 of IBC applies to:

(A) Personal guarantors
(B) Corporate debtors only
(C) Both corporate debtors and guarantors
(D) All creditors

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Corporate debtors only

Reasoning: The passage states “The moratorium under Section 14 of IBC applies to the corporate debtor, not to personal guarantors.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the limited scope of moratorium. Guarantors can be pursued independently.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 114

Question: Personal guarantors can be proceeded against:

(A) Only after corporate debtor’s resolution is complete
(B) During the moratorium period on corporate debtor
(C) Only with permission of NCLT
(D) Only if corporate debtor is liquidated

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) During the moratorium period on corporate debtor

Reasoning: Since moratorium doesn’t apply to guarantors, they can be proceeded against even during the moratorium. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the independent nature of guarantor liability. The IBC permits parallel proceedings.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 115

Question: Part III of IBC deals with:

(A) Corporate insolvency
(B) Personal guarantor insolvency
(C) Liquidation
(D) Voluntary liquidation

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Personal guarantor insolvency

Reasoning: The passage mentions “The Code provides for separate insolvency resolution for personal guarantors under Part III.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 identifies the correct Part. Part II deals with corporate debtors, Part III with individuals.

Passage XXVI: Evidence & Confession

CLAT PG answer key 2026 finally addresses evidence law. “Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that a confession made by an accused person is irrelevant if it appears to the Court to have been caused by inducement, threat or promise having reference to the charge against such person, proceeding from a person in authority and sufficient in the opinion of the Court to give the accused person grounds which would appear to him reasonable for supposing that by making it he would gain any advantage or avoid any evil of a temporal nature in reference to the proceedings against him.

The Supreme Court has held that for Section 24 to apply, the inducement, threat or promise must be shown to have come from a person in authority. A person in authority is not merely a police officer but includes any person who is reasonably in a position to affect the proceedings against the accused. The test is whether the accused could reasonably suppose that the person had influence over the proceeding.”

[Extracted from State of Rajasthan v. Raja Ram (2003) 8 SCC 180]

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 116

Question: For a confession to be irrelevant under Section 24, the inducement/threat/promise must:

(A) Come from any person
(B) Come from a person in authority
(C) Be made by the magistrate
(D) Be made in court

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Come from a person in authority

Reasoning: Section 24 explicitly requires the inducement to proceed from “a person in authority.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 states the statutory requirement. The person must have apparent influence over proceedings.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 117

Question: A person in authority includes:

(A) Only police officers
(B) Any person reasonably in position to affect proceedings
(C) Only judges
(D) Only prosecutors

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Any person reasonably in position to affect proceedings

Reasoning: The passage explains “person in authority is not merely a police officer but includes any person who is reasonably in a position to affect the proceedings.” This CLAT PG answer key 2026 captures the broad definition. It includes magistrates, senior officers, or anyone with apparent influence.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 118

Question: The test for whether a person is in authority is:

(A) Actual influence over proceedings
(B) Whether accused could reasonably suppose the person had influence
(C) Official designation only
(D) Police rank above Inspector

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Whether accused could reasonably suppose the person had influence

Reasoning: The test is objective – what the accused could reasonably believe. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the subjective-objective test. It’s about perception of authority, not actual power.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 119

Question: A confession made to a police officer:

(A) Is always admissible
(B) Is always inadmissible under Section 25
(C) Is admissible if made voluntarily
(D) Is inadmissible unless recorded by magistrate

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (B) Is always inadmissible under Section 25

Reasoning: Section 25 of the Evidence Act makes confessions to police officers inadmissible. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 states the absolute bar. Only confessions to magistrates are generally admissible.

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 – Question 120

Question: Which of the following confessions is admissible?

(A) Confession to police officer during interrogation
(B) Confession to magistrate in custody without lawyer present
(C) Confession to magistrate after warning of right to silence
(D) Confession made under police threat

CLAT PG Answer Key 2026 Answer: (C) Confession to magistrate after warning of right to silence

Reasoning: Confessions to magistrates are admissible if voluntary and after proper warnings. This CLAT PG answer key 2026 reflects the safeguards. The magistrate must ensure voluntariness and warn of rights.

ALL THE BEST

also look at
CLAT UG Answer key
CLAT PG 2026 Answer Key
AIBE 20 (2025) Official Question Paper With Complete AIBE answer key 2025
UGC NET Law Syllabus and Preparation Strategy: Complete Guide for JRF and Assistant Professor 2025
UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022 – Complete Question-wise Solutions