UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022 – Complete Question-wise Solutions

A Complete Question-wise Guide to UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022

The Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission’s (UPPSC) recruitment for the position of Assistant Prosecution Officer represents one of India’s most competitive and prestigious legal career pathways. The UP APO 2022 Preliminary Examination, conducted on August 21, 2022, was a defining moment for 33,315 candidates competing for just 69 positions, with over 1,079 eventually qualifying for the mains examination. This substantial competition underscores the critical importance of strategic preparation and deep understanding of the exam’s pattern, standards, and question-solving methodologies.

The UP APO 2022 Pre Question Paper stands as an invaluable resource for contemporary law graduates, judicial aspirants, and practicing advocates aiming to understand the actual examination dynamics and question formulations. Unlike speculative study materials, UP APO Previous Year Paper (UP APO PYQ 22 Previous Year Questions) offer authentic insights into the examiner’s approach, question difficulty levels, and the legal concepts emphasized by the Commission. These prelims solved questions provide an unprecedented opportunity to decode the examination strategy that the UPPSC employs and to calibrate your preparation accordingly.

Assistant Prosecution Officer Solutions extracted from the official answer keys represent far more than mere answer compilations—they constitute a blueprint for legal reasoning at the professional level. An APO’s role, as established by Section 25 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, involves conducting prosecutions in magistrate courts, managing pre-trial case assessments, scrutinizing evidence, preparing legal documents, and guiding investigation officers on legal procedures. The 2022 preliminary examination was specifically designed to assess candidates’ readiness for these multifaceted responsibilities through a rigorous 150-mark, two-hour objective test encompassing both General Knowledge (50 questions) and Law (100 questions). Understand up apo 2025 syllabus and preparation strategy

Understanding how each question was structured and resolved provides invaluable preparation guidance for future aspirants navigating similar competitive pathways in the Indian legal system. This comprehensive question-wise solution guide deconstructs each problem, clarifies legal principles, and demonstrates the application of statutory provisions that the UPPSC expects from successful candidates in pursuit of this demanding legal career Question Paper with answers.

UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022, IPC

Question 52 (IPC)

Question: ‘Adulteration of drugs’ is made punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: ‘दवाओं में अपमिश्रण’, भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 किस धारा के अन्तर्गत दण्डनीय है?

Options:

• (a) Section 273 / धारा 273
• (b) Section 272 / धारा 272
• (c) Section 275 / धारा 275
• (d) Section 274 / धारा 274 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 274

Reasoning: Section 274 IPC specifically deals with adulteration of drugs or medical preparations. It punishes whoever adulterates any drug in such manner as to lessen efficacy or change operation, making it noxious, with intent that it shall be sold for medicinal purpose. Punishment: imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹1,000 or both. Section 272 deals with food/drink adulteration, Section 273 with sale of noxious food/drink, and Section 275 with sale of adulterated drugs.

Question 55 (IPC)

Question: Which of the following combinations is correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संयोजन सही सुमेलित है?

Options:

• (a) Basudeo Vs. State of Pepsu – Section 86, I.P.C. ✓
• (b) Unsoundness of mind – Section 87, I.P.C.
• (c) Bigamy – Section 497, I.P.C.
• (d) Attempt to commit suicide – Section 306, I.P.C.

Answer: (a) Basudeo Vs. State of Pepsu – Section 86, I.P.C.

Reasoning: Basudeo v. State of Pepsu (AIR 1956 SC 488) is a landmark case that interpreted Section 86 IPC dealing with intoxication as defense. The Supreme Court held that voluntary intoxication is generally not a defense. Option (b) is wrong: unsoundness of mind is under Section 84, not 87. Option (c) is wrong: bigamy is under Section 494, not 497. Option (d) is wrong: attempt to suicide is under Section 309, not 306; Section 306 deals with abetment of suicide.

Question 57 (IPC)

Question: A hangman, who hangs the prisoner in pursuant to the order of the Court, is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा के आधार पर एक जल्लाद, जो किसी कैदी को न्यायालय के आदेश पर फाँसी देता है, आपराधिक दायित्व से मुक्त है?

Options:

• (a) Section 78 / धारा 78 ✓
• (b) Section 77 / धारा 77
• (c) Section 76 / धारा 76
• (d) Section 79 / धारा 79

Answer: (a) Section 78

Reasoning: Section 78 IPC provides “Act done pursuant to judgment or order of Court” as a general exception. It states that nothing done in pursuance of or warranted by a court’s judgment/order is an offense, provided the person acts in good faith. The hangman executing a death sentence is protected under this section. Section 77 protects judges themselves, Section 76 deals with acts done under legal obligation, and Section 79 deals with acts justified by law.

Question 58 (IPC)

Question: ‘Making preparation to commit dacoity’ is punishable in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under which section?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 में ‘डकैती के लिये तैयारी करना’ दण्डनीय है किस धारा के तहत?

Options:

• (a) under Section 395 / धारा 395 के तहत
• (b) under Section 393 / धारा 393 के तहत
• (c) under Section 396 / धारा 396 के तहत
• (d) under Section 399 / धारा 399 के तहत ✓

Answer: (d) Section 399

Reasoning: Section 399 IPC specifically criminalizes making preparation to commit dacoity with punishment of rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years and fine. This provision criminalizes the inchoate offense of preparation. Section 395 deals with actual dacoity, Section 393 with robbery, and Section 396 with dacoity with murder.

Question 63 (IPC)

Question: Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation is punishable under which section?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 के अन्तर्गत पति द्वारा अपनी पत्नी के साथ पृथक्करण के दौरान संभोग दण्डनीय है किस धारा के तहत?

Options:

• (a) Section 376 C / धारा 376-ग
• (b) Section 376 D / धारा 376-घ
• (c) Section 376 B / धारा 376-ख ✓
• (d) Section 376 A / धारा 376-क

Answer: (c) Section 376 B

Reasoning: Section 376B IPC was added by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 and deals with sexual intercourse by husband upon wife during separation. It requires minimum 2 years imprisonment (up to 7 years) and fine. This provision recognizes that consent in marriage is continuous and can be withdrawn even during legal separation. It creates an exception to the marital rape exception.

Question 66 (IPC)

Question: The term ‘voluntarily’ has been defined in which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा में “स्वेच्छा से” शब्द को परिभाषित किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Section 24 / धारा 24
• (b) Section 39 / धारा 39 ✓
• (c) Section 25 / धारा 25
• (d) Section 30 / धारा 30

Answer: (b) Section 39

Reasoning: Section 39 IPC defines “voluntarily” as when person causes an effect by means whereby he intended to cause it, or by means which he knew or had reason to believe would likely cause it. This definition is crucial as it appears throughout IPC in offenses requiring mens rea. Section 24 defines dishonestly, Section 25 defines fraudulently, and Section 30 defines valuable security.

Question 69 (IPC)

Question: Which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with ‘Solitary Confinement’?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की निम्नलिखित धाराओं में से कौन-सी धारा ‘एकान्त परिरोध’ से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 72 / धारा 72
• (b) Section 71 / धारा 71
• (c) Section 74 / धारा 74
• (d) Section 73 / धारा 73 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 73

Reasoning: Section 73 IPC prescribes limits for solitary confinement. Court may order solitary confinement for any portion not exceeding 3 months total, with limits based on sentence duration (1 month if ≤6 months sentence; 2 months if >6 months but ≤1 year; 3 months if >1 year). Only applicable for rigorous imprisonment, not simple imprisonment.

Question 72 (IPC)

Question: Which Sections of the Indian Penal Code provide for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air force?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता की कौन-सी धाराएं थलसेना, नौसेना तथा वायुसेना से संबंधित अपराधों के संबंध में प्रावधान करती हैं?

Options:

• (a) Section 124 to 129 / धारा 124 से 129
• (b) Section 171-A to 171-I / धारा 171-क से 171-ठ
• (c) Section 165 to 171 / धारा 165 से 171
• (d) Section 131 to 140 / धारा 131 से 140 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 131 to 140

Reasoning: Sections 131-140 IPC (Chapter VI) specifically deal with “Offences Affecting the Armed Forces” including abetting mutiny, assault on officers, desertion, harboring deserters, and related offenses. Sections 124-129 deal with offenses against state/sedition, Sections 171-A to 171-I deal with electoral offenses, and Sections 165-171 deal with public servants accepting gratification.

Question 74 (IPC)

Question: Match the following:

List – I: A. Attempt to commit culpable homicide / B. Attempt to commit suicide / C. Assault / D. Abduction

List-II: 1. Section 351, I.P.C. / 2. Section 362, I.P.C. / 3. Section 308, I.P.C. / 4. Section 309, I.P.C.

Code: A B C D

Options:

• (a) 1 2 4 3
• (b) 3 4 2 1
• (c) 3 4 1 2 ✓
• (d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (c) 3 4 1 2

Reasoning: A→3: Attempt to commit culpable homicide is under Section 308 (punishment: up to 3 years or fine or both). B→4: Attempt to commit suicide is under Section 309 (though largely unenforced after Mental Healthcare Act, 2017). C→1: Assault is under Section 351 (attempting/offering use of force without actual contact). D→2: Abduction is under Section 362 (compelling or inducing person to go from place).

Question 77 (IPC)

Question: Which one of the following combinations is NOT correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संयोजन सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Dowry death / दहेज हत्या – Sec.498A
• (b) Rape / बलात्संग – Sec. 377
• (c) Adultery / जार कर्म – Section 497
• (d) Robbery / लूट – Section 391

Answer: (a) – Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrectly matched. (a) is the incorrect option shown as answer.

Reasoning: (a) Dowry death is under Section 304B, not 498A. (b) Rape is under Section 375, not 377 (377 deals with unnatural offences). (c) Adultery under Section 497 is struck down (Joseph Shine v. Union of India, 2018). (d) Robbery is correctly under Section 391.

Question 81 (IPC)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 relates to punishment for ‘Abetment to commit suicide’?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की निम्नलिखित धाराओं में से कौन-सी धारा ‘आत्महत्या के लिये दुष्प्रेरण’ के लिए दण्ड से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 307 / धारा 307
• (b) Section 306 / धारा 306 ✓
• (c) Section 309 / धारा 309
• (d) Section 308 / धारा 308

Answer: (b) Section 306

Reasoning: Section 306 IPC deals with “Abetment of suicide” and provides punishment of imprisonment up to 10 years and fine. If person commits suicide in consequence of abetment, the person abetting is liable. Section 309 deals with attempt to commit suicide (self), Section 307 with attempt to commit murder, and Section 308 with attempt to commit culpable homicide.

Question 84 (IPC)

Question: Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted is committed in consequence and where no express provision is made for its punishment is dealt under which Section?

प्रश्न: किसी अपराध का दुष्प्रेरण, यदद दुष्प्रेरित कार्य परिणाम में किया गया है और जहाँ इसके दण्ड के लिये कोई स्पष्ट प्रावधान नहीं किया गया है, किस धारा के अन्तर्गत आता है?

Options:

• (a) Sec.110 of I.P.C., 1860
• (b) Sec.109 of I.P.C., 1860 ✓
• (c) Sec. 112 of I.P.C., 1860
• (d) Sec. 111 of I.P.C., 1860

Answer: (b) Section 109

Reasoning: Section 109 IPC states that abetment of any offense for which there is no express provision of punishment shall be punished with punishment provided for the offense itself. This is a general provision for abetment where no specific punishment is prescribed. Sections 110, 111, 112 deal with other aspects of abetment and criminal conspiracy.

Question 86 (IPC)

Question: Use of violence by a member of an unlawful assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object, will constitute:

प्रश्न: पाँच या अधिक सदस्यों के विधिविरुद्ध जमाव के किसी एक सदस्य द्वारा किसी सामान्य उद्देश्य को अग्रसर करने में की गयी हिंसा का प्रयोग गदित करेगा:

Options:

• (a) Assault / हमला
• (b) Affray / दंगा
• (c) Unlawful assembly / विधिविरुद्ध जमाव
• (d) Rioting / बलवा ✓

Answer: (d) Rioting

Reasoning: Rioting as defined in Section 146 IPC involves use of violence by five or more persons assembled for common object. It requires unlawful assembly (minimum 5 persons) using violence. Assault involves individual force, affray involves fighting between individuals, and unlawful assembly is mere assembly without violence.

Question 88 (IPC)

Question: Match the List – I with List – II:

List – I: A. Insanity as a defence / B. Common intention / C. Necessity / D. Private defence

List-II: 1. Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs.Emperor / 2. R. Vs. McNaughten / 3. Vishwanath Vs. State of U.P. / 4. R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen

Code: A B C D

Options:

• (a) 2 1 4 3 ✓
• (b) 1 2 3 4
• (c) 3 4 1 2
• (d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3

Reasoning: A→2: McNaughten case established insanity as defense. B→1: Barendra Kumar Ghosh case deals with common intention. C→4: Dudley and Stephen case (famous shipwreck cannibalism case) deals with necessity. D→3: Vishwanath case deals with private defense.

Question 91 (IPC)

Question: ‘Promoting enmity between different groups on the ground of religion’ is punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: ‘धर्म के आधार पर विभिन्न समूहों के बीच शत्रुता को बढावा देना’, भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत दण्डनीय है?

Options:

• (a) Section 153 A / धारा 153-क ✓
• (b) Section 153 / धारा 153
• (c) Section 153 B / धारा 153-ख
• (d) Section 153 AA / धारा 153-कक

Answer: (a) Section 153 A

Reasoning: Section 153A IPC specifically deals with promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, etc. with intention to cause riot. Punishment: imprisonment up to 3 years or fine up to ₹500 or both. Related sections: 153 (wantonly provoking), 153B (imputations prejudicial to communal harmony), 153AA (harsh punishments for aggravated forms).

Question 94 (IPC)

Question: By which one of the following Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, the ‘Clause Seventh’ have been inserted under Section 100 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से किस आपराधिक विधि (संशोधन) अधिनियम द्वारा भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की धारा 100 में ‘खंड सातवाँ’ जोड़ा गया है?

Options:

• (a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ✓
• (b) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983
• (c) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2019
• (d) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018

Answer: (a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

Reasoning: The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 inserted Clause Seventh in Section 100 IPC dealing with private defense. This amendment was made in response to the Nirbhaya case (2012). The 2013 amendment made significant changes to IPC regarding sexual offenses and defenses.

Question 98 (IPC)

Question: ‘Disclosure of identity of victim of rape’ is punishable in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under which Section?

प्रश्न: ‘बलात्संग की पीड़िता की पहचान का प्रकटीकरण’ भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा में दण्डनीय है?

Options:

• (a) Section 228-B / धारा 228-ख
• (b) Section 228-A / धारा 228-क ✓
• (c) Section 229-A / धारा 229-क
• (d) Section 229 / धारा 229

Answer: (b) Section 228-A

Reasoning: Section 228-A IPC specifically deals with disclosure of identity of rape victim. It provides punishment with imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹1,000 or both. This provision protects privacy and dignity of rape victims and prevents their identification in media or public.

Question 103 (IPC)

Question: Section 195 A of Indian Penal code, 1860 relates to:

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की धारा 195 ए संबंधित है:

Options:

• (a) Threatening to give false evidence / मिथ्या साक्ष्य देने की धमकी देना ✓
• (b) Protection of witness / साक्षी की सुरक्षा
• (c) Protection to victim / पीड़ित को सुरक्षा
• (d) Protection to offender / अपराधी को सुरक्षा

Answer: (a) Threatening to give false evidence

Reasoning: Section 195 A IPC provides punishment for threatening to give false evidence with intention to cause wrongful conviction for life offense. It protects against coercion/threats to witnesses. Punishment: imprisonment up to 7 years and fine up to ₹1,000.

Question 106 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’ introduces water into an ice-house belonging to ‘Z’ and thus causes the ice to melt, intending wrongful loss to ‘Z’. ‘A’ has committed:

प्रश्न: ‘क’ की सदोष हानि करने के आशय से उसके बर्फ-घर में ‘ख’ पानी छोड़ देता है और इस प्रकार बर्फ को गला देता है। ‘क’ ने अपराध किया है:

Options:

• (a) Mischief / रिष्टि ✓
• (b) Extortion / उद्दापन
• (c) No offence / कोई अपराध नहीं
• (d) Criminal breach of trust / आपराधिक न्यासभंग

Answer: (a) Mischief

Reasoning: Section 425 IPC defines mischief as “damage to property.” Here, A intentionally causes damage to Z’s ice by introducing water, resulting in melting of ice. This clearly constitutes mischief. Punishment under Section 426: imprisonment up to 3 months or fine up to ₹250 or both.

Question 108 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’ finds a valuable ring. Not knowing to whom it belongs, ‘A’ sales it immediately without attempting to discover the owner. ‘A’ has committed:

प्रश्न: ‘क’ को एक मूल्यवान अंगूठी पड़ी मिलती है। वह नहीं जानता है कि वह किसकी है। ‘क’ उसके स्वामी को खोज निकालने का प्रयत्न किये बिना उसे तुरंत बेच देता है। ‘क’ ने अपराध किया है:

Options:

• (a) Attempt to theft / चोरी का प्रयत्न करने का
• (b) Theft / चोरी
• (c) No offence / कोई अपराध नहीं
• (d) Dishonest misappropriation of property / संपत्ति का बेईमानी से दुर्विनियोग ✓

Answer: (d) Dishonest misappropriation of property

Reasoning: Section 403 IPC defines this offense. A found property and instead of attempting to find owner, sold it with intent to keep proceeds. This constitutes dishonest misappropriation. It differs from theft as here A didn’t take property from another’s possession, but found property and misappropriated it dishonestly.

Question 110 (IPC)

Question: Match List – I with List – II:

List – I: A. Section 413 / B. Section 416 / C. Section 436 / D. Section 441

List – II: 1. Cheating by personation / 2. Mischief by fire with intent to destroy house / 3. Criminal trespass / 4. Habitually dealing in stolen property

Code: A B C D

Options:

• (a) 1 4 3 2
• (b) 4 1 2 3 ✓
• (c) 2 4 1 3
• (d) 3 2 4 1

Answer: (b) 4 1 2 3

Reasoning: A(413)→4: Habitually dealing in stolen property. B(416)→1: Cheating by personation. C(436)→2: Mischief by fire/explosive with intent to destroy house. D(441)→3: Criminal trespass.

Question 112 (IPC)

Question: ‘Offences against public justice are provided under which Chapter of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: ‘लोक न्याय के विरुद्ध अपराधों’ का उल्लेख भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 के किस अध्याय के अन्तर्गत किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Chapter XI / अध्याय XI ✓
• (b) Chapter X / अध्याय X
• (c) Chapter XIII / अध्याय XIII
• (d) Chapter XII B / अध्याय XII-ख

Answer: (a) Chapter XI

Reasoning: Chapter XI (Sections 186-229) of IPC deals with “Offences Against Public Justice” including false evidence, perjury, bribery, etc. Chapter X deals with offenses by public servants, Chapter XIII deals with offenses relating to elections.

Question 113 (IPC)

Question: Electronic record under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is defined in:

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 के अन्तर्गत ‘इलेक्ट्रॉनिक अभिलेख’ को परिभाषित किया गया है।

Options:

• (a) Section 29A / धारा 29-क ✓
• (b) Section 29 / धारा 29
• (c) Section 29D / धारा 29-घ
• (d) Section 29B / धारा 29-ख

Answer: (a) Section 29A

Reasoning: Section 29A IPC, inserted after Information Technology Act, 2000, defines electronic record to include data, information, or records stored in digital form. This provision aligns IPC with modern technology and digital evidence.

Question 116 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ had committed?

प्रश्न: ‘क’, ‘ख’ की जेब में हाथ डालकर ‘ख’ की जेब से चोरी करने का प्रयास करता है। ‘क’ अपने प्रयास में असफल रहा क्योंकि ‘ख’ की जेब में कुछ नहीं था। ‘क’ ने कौन-सा अपराध किया?

Options:

• (a) Attempt to commit theft / चोरी करने का प्रयास ✓
• (b) Theft / चोरी
• (c) No offence / कोई अपराध नहीं
• (d) Mischief / रिष्टि

Answer: (a) Attempt to commit theft

Reasoning: Even though A was unsuccessful (pocket was empty), he made a definite attempt to commit theft by performing acts toward commission of theft. Section 511 IPC covers “Punishment for attempting to commit offences.” Attempt to theft is punishable even if it fails.

Question 120 (IPC)

Question: Which of the following Section of Indian Penal Code is based on the Maxim “Di minimis non curat lex”?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता की निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी धारा “डि मिनिमिस नॉन क्यूरेट लेक्स” के सूत्रवाक्य पर आधारित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 85 / धारा 85
• (b) Section 84 / धारा 84
• (c) Section 95 / धारा 95
• (d) Section 91 / धारा 91 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 95

Reasoning: The maxim “Di minimis non curat lex” means “the law does not concern itself with trifles.” Section 95 IPC embodies this principle by providing that act causing harm not substantial enough to fall within definition of offense is not punishable. This recognizes that not all harm warrants criminal punishment.

Question 123 (IPC)

Question: ‘Sexual harassment is defined under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in which Section?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा में ‘यौन उत्पीड़न’ की परिभाषा दी गई है?

Options:

• (a) Section 354 B / धारा 354-ख
• (b) Section 354 A / धारा 354-क ✓
• (c) Section 509 / धारा 509
• (d) Section 354 C / धारा 354-ग

Answer: (b) Section 354 A

Reasoning: Section 354A IPC, inserted after Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, defines and criminalizes sexual harassment. It includes unwelcome advances, solicitation of sexual acts, physical contact of sexual nature, etc. Punishment: imprisonment up to 3 years or fine up to ₹2,000 or both.

Question 126 (IPC)

Question: Penalty for harbouring robbers or dacoits’ been provided under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: भारतीय दण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत ‘लुटेरों या डकैतों को संश्रय देने के लिये शास्ति’ का प्रावधान किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Section 216 / धारा 216
• (b) Section 215 A / धारा 215-क
• (c) Section 217 / धारा 217
• (d) Section 216 A / धारा 216-क ✓

Answer: (d) Section 216 A

Reasoning: Section 216A IPC deals with harbouring offender knowing they have committed offence. For harboring robbers/dacoits: imprisonment up to 7 years or fine up to ₹500 or both. Section 216 deals with harboring offender generally, Section 217 deals with public servant harboring criminal.

Question 130 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’ lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention thereby causing death. Z believing the ground to be firm, treads on it, falls in and is killed. ‘A’ is guilty of:

प्रश्न: ‘क’ एक गड्ढे पर कड़ियाँ और घास इस आशय से बिछाता है कि तद्द्वारा मृत्यु कारित करें। ‘ख’ यह विश्वास करते हुये कि वह भूमि सुदृढ है, उस पर चलता है, उसमें गिर जाता है और मारा जाता है ‘क’ ने अपराध किया है:

Options:

• (a) Culpable homicide / आपराधिक मानववध ✓
• (b) Criminal conspiracy / आपराधिक षड्यंत्र
• (c) Murder / हत्या
• (d) Abetment / दुष्प्रेरण

Answer: (a) Culpable homicide

Reasoning: While A intended to cause death and death occurred as natural consequence, the element of premeditation and planning is absent (which would constitute murder). Under Section 299-304 IPC distinction, this is culpable homicide (Section 304) not murder (Section 300) as premeditation is unclear. A set trap intending death, death resulted, hence culpable homicide.

Question 132 (IPC)

Question: “Rioting while armed with deadly weapon is punishable under which Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

प्रश्न: ‘घाति आयुध से सज्जित होकर बलवा करना भारतीय दंण्ड संहिता, 1860 की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत दण्डनीय है?

Options:

• (a) Section 146 / धारा 146
• (b) Section 159 / धारा 159
• (c) Section 148 / धारा 148 ✓
• (d) Section 147 / धारा 147

Answer: (c) Section 148

Reasoning: Section 148 IPC deals with rioting armed with deadly weapons. Punishment: imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to ₹500, or both. Section 146 is mere rioting, Section 147 is rioting without weapons, Section 159 deals with affray.

Question 134 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’entices away ‘B’s wife from the house of ‘B’ ‘A’ has committed the offence under:

प्रश्न: ‘अ’, ‘ब’ की पत्नी को ‘ब’ के घर से फुसलाकर ले जाता है। ‘अ’ने अपराध कारित किया है:

Options:

• (a) Section 497 of Indian Penal Code
• (b) (c) Section 498 of Indian Penal Code ✓
• (c) Section 498-A of Indian Penal Code
• (d) Section 496 of Indian Penal Code

Answer: (b) Section 498

Reasoning: Section 498 IPC deals with enticing woman from lawful guardianship. It provides punishment of imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹1,000 or both. Note: Section 497 (adultery) was struck down in Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018). Section 498A deals with cruelty by husband/relatives.

Question 137 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’ meets ‘Z’ on the high roads, shows a pistol and demands ‘Z’s purse. ‘Z’ in consequence surrenders his purse, ‘A’ has committed:

प्रश्न: ‘क’, ‘ख’ को राजमार्ग पर मिलता है, एक पिस्तौल दिखाता है और ‘ख’ की थैली मांगता है। परिणामस्वरूप ‘ख’ अपनी थैली दे देता है। ‘क’ ने अपराध किया है:

Options:

• (a) Robbery / लूट ✓
• (b) Extortion / उद्दापन
• (c) Cheating / छल
• (d) Theft / चोरी

Answer: (a) Robbery

Reasoning: Section 390 IPC defines robbery as theft with violence/threat. Here A shows pistol (threat of violence) and demands property, which constitutes robbery. Extortion differs as it’s demand with threat without actual/attempted theft from immediate possession. Punishment for robbery: imprisonment up to 10 years and fine up to ₹1,000.

Question 141 (IPC)

Question: ‘A’, a police officer tortures ‘B’ in order to induce ‘B’ to confess that he has committed a crime, ‘A’ is guilty of an offence under:

प्रश्न: ‘अ’, एक पुलिस अधिकारी ‘ब’ को यह संस्वीकृति करने के लिये कि उसने अपराध किया है, उत्प्रेरित करने के लिये यातना देता है। ‘अ’ किस धारा के अन्तर्गत अपराध का दोषी है?

Options:

• (a) Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code
• (b) Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code
• (c) Section 331 of the Indian Penal Code
• (d) Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code ✓

Answer: (d) Section 330

Reasoning: Section 330 IPC deals with causing hurt by act amounting to criminal force to extort confession or prevent person reporting offense. Punishment: imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to ₹250 or both. Section 326 deals with causing grievous hurt by act endangering life, Section 325 with causing grievous hurt.

Question 145 (IPC)

Question: Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Robbery / लूट – Section 390
• (b) Extortion / उद्दापन – Section 383
• (c) Theft / चोरी – Section 388 ✗
• (d) Dacoity / डकैती – Section 391

Answer: (c) Theft – Section 388

Reasoning: Theft is covered under Section 378, not 388. Section 388 deals with extortion under threat of death or grievous hurt. Section 390 for robbery, Section 383 for extortion, Section 391 for dacoity are all correct.

Question 147 (IPC)

Question: Which of the following is correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित है?

Options:

• (a) Harbouring offender / अपराधी को संश्रय देना – Section 52A, I.P.C.
• (b) Public nuisance / लोक न्यूसेन्स – Section 267, I.P.C.
• (c) Affray / दंगा – Section 146, I.P.C.
• (d) Fabricating false evidence / मिथ्या साक्ष्य गढ़ना – Section 192 I.P.C. ✓

Answer: (d) Fabricating false evidence – Section 192

Reasoning: Section 192 IPC deals with fabricating false evidence. Punishment: imprisonment up to 7 years and fine up to ₹1,000. Option (d) is correctly matched. Options (a), (b), (c) have wrong section numbers.

Question 150 (IPC)

Question: Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Wrongful loss / सदोष हानि – Section 24, I.P.C. ✗
• (b) Wrongful gain / सदोष अभिलाभ – Section 23, I.P.C.
• (c) Punishment / दण्ड – Section 53, I.P.C.
• (d) Counterfeit / कूटकरण – Section 28, I.P.C.

Answer: (a) Wrongful loss – Section 24

Reasoning: Wrongful loss is defined under Section 23, not Section 24. Section 23 defines both wrongful loss and wrongful gain. Section 24 defines “Dishonestly.” Section 53 deals with types of punishment. Section 28 defines counterfeit.

UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022, , CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973

Question 53 (CrPC)

Question: Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

List: A. Arrest by Magistrate – Section 45 / B. Arrest without warrant by Police Officer – Section 41 / C. Arrest how made – Section 46 / D. Arrest by private person – Section 43

Options:

• (a) The correct answer indicates option (a)

Answer: (a)

Reasoning: The matching is: A-Section 45 (Arrest by Magistrate), B-Section 41 (Police arrest without warrant), C-Section 46 (How arrest made), D-Section 43 (Private person arrest). All are correctly matched in CrPC 1973.

Question 54 (CrPC)

Question: Which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code resembles with Habeas Corpus writ?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता का कौन-सा प्रावधान बंदी प्रत्यक्षीकरण रिट के सदृश है?

Options:

• (a) Section 93 / धारा 93
• (b) Section 91 / धारा 91
• (c) Section 96 / धारा 96
• (d) Section 97 / धारा 97 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 97

Reasoning: Section 97 CrPC provides for direction to produce person before court, resembling Habeas Corpus writ functionality. It allows court to direct production of person allegedly unlawfully detained. Similar to Habeas Corpus, it protects personal liberty and freedom from unlawful detention.

Question 60 (CrPC)

Question: In which Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the provision of security for good behaviour from habitual offender is made?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 में अभ्यासत: अपराधियों से सदाचार के लिये प्रतिभूति का प्रावधान किस धारा में है?

Options:

• (a) Section 107 / धारा 107
• (b) Section 106 / धारा 106
• (c) Section 110 / धारा 110 ✓
• (d) Section 109 / धारा 109

Answer: (c) Section 110

Reasoning: Section 110 CrPC provides for security from habitual offenders. Court can require habitual offender to execute bond for good behavior for specified period (minimum 6 months, maximum 2 years). Section 107 deals with security for keeping peace, Section 106 for public nuisance, Section 109 for release on personal bond.

[Continuing with remaining CrPC, Evidence Act, Police Act and GK questions in same format…]

Question 67 (CrPC)

Question: When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a Criminal Court may under Section 166-A of Cr.P.C. issue a:

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता की धारा 166-क के अन्तर्गत जब तलाशी भारत से बाहर होनी हो, तो दांडिक न्यायालय जारी कर सकता है:

Options:

• (a) Written order / लिखित आदेश
• (b) Search warrant / तलाशी वारंट
• (c) Letter of request / अनुरोध पत्र ✓
• (d) Letter of requisition / अपेक्षा पत्र

Answer: (c) Letter of request

Reasoning: Section 166-A CrPC provides for issuance of letter of request to foreign court when search is required outside India. This follows international cooperation protocols for obtaining evidence from abroad through proper judicial channels.

Question 71 (CrPC)

Question: Who among the following has the power to commute a sentence under Section 433 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की धारा 433 के अन्तर्गत दण्डादेश के लघुकरण की शक्ति निम्न में से किसके पास है?

Options:

• (a) President of India / भारत के राष्ट्रपति
• (b) Supreme Court / उच्चतम न्यायालय
• (c) Appropriate Government / समुचित सरकार ✓
• (d) High Court / उच्च न्यायालय

Answer: (c) Appropriate Government

Reasoning: Section 433 CrPC vests power to commute sentences in appropriate government (Central/State). President has pardoning power under Article 72 Constitution, but for CrPC procedure, appropriate government exercises this under Section 433.

Question 75 (CrPC)

Question: In which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provisions relating to legal aid has been provided?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की निम्नलिखित में से किस धारा में विधिक सहायता का प्रावधान किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Section 305 / धारा 305
• (b) Section 304 / धारा 304 ✓
• (c) Section 310 / धारा 310
• (d) Section 306 / धारा 306

Answer: (b) Section 304

Reasoning: Section 304 CrPC deals with legal aid provisions for accused persons. It requires court to inform accused of right to legal aid and arrange for legal representation if accused cannot afford it. This is fundamental right protection in criminal procedure.

Question 82 (CrPC)

Question: Which of the following has a power to withdraw a case under Section 409 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की धारा 409 के अन्तर्गत निम्नलिखित में से किसके पास मामले को वापस लेने की शक्ति है?

Options:

• (a) Supreme Court / उच्चतम न्यायालय
• (b) Judicial Magistrate / न्यायिक मजिस्ट्रेट
• (c) Session Judge / सेशन न्यायाधीश ✓
• (d) High Court / उच्च न्यायालय

Answer: (c) Session Judge

Reasoning: Section 409 CrPC grants Session Judge power to withdraw cases after committal. Only senior judicial officers can withdraw cases to prevent misuse. This power ensures proper supervision of criminal cases in trial courts.

Question 89 (CrPC)

Question: Who can issue search warrant in respect of postal or telegraph authority?

प्रश्न: डाक या तारघर की तलाशी का वारंट कौन जारी कर सकता है?

Options:

• (a) Any civil court of competent jurisdiction
• (b) District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate ✓
• (c) Only High Court
• (d) Any revenue court of competent jurisdiction

Answer: (b) District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate

Reasoning: Section 98 CrPC restricts search warrant in postal/telegraph offices to District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate to protect privacy of communication. Regular courts cannot issue such warrants to maintain confidentiality of postal/telecom services.

Question 96 (CrPC)

Question: Provisions relating to reference and revision are provided under which Chapter of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 के किस अध्याय के अन्तर्गत निर्देश और पुनरीक्षण से संबंधित प्रावधान प्रदान किये गये हैं?

Options:

• (a) Chapter XXX / अध्याय XXX ✓
• (b) Chapter XXIX / अध्याय XXIX
• (c) Chapter XXXII / अध्याय XXXII
• (d) Chapter XXXI / अध्याय XXXI

Answer: (a) Chapter XXX

Reasoning: Chapter XXX (Sections 401-440) of CrPC deals with “Reference and Revision” covering High Court’s revisional and reference jurisdiction over lower courts’ decisions.

Question 99 (CrPC)

Question: What is the minimum period of imprisonment for releasing an accused on bail under Section 436A of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

प्रश्न: धारा 436 क दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 के अंतर्गत अभियुक्त को जमानत पर छोड़ने के लिये न्यूनतम अवधि क्या होगी?

Options:

• (a) 1/2 of maximum period of imprisonment ✓
• (b) 1/4 of maximum period of imprisonment
• (c) No period prescribed
• (d) 1/3 of maximum period of imprisonment

Answer: (a) 1/2 of maximum period of imprisonment

Reasoning: Section 436A CrPC provides that if accused has been in custody for at least 1/2 of maximum imprisonment period provided for offense, court may release on bail. This ensures speedy trial and prevents prolonged detention without trial.

Question 101 (CrPC)

Question: Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the accused shall be supplied the copy of Police report and other documents by the Magistrate?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की निम्नलिखित धाराओं में से किस धारा के अधीन अभियुक्त को मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा पुलिस रिपोर्ट तथा अन्य दस्तावेजों की प्रतिलिपि प्रदान की जाती है?

Options:

• (a) Section 205 / धारा 205
• (b) Section 207 / धारा 207 ✓
• (c) Section 209 / धारा 209
• (d) Section 210 / धारा 210

Answer: (b) Section 207

Reasoning: Section 207 CrPC requires Magistrate to supply accused with copy of FIR, police report, witness statements, and all documents on which prosecution relies. This is essential for accused’s right to fair trial and proper defense preparation.

Question 102 (CrPC)

Question: Match List – I with List – II (Sections of Cr. P.C.):

A. Appeals from convictions / B. No appeals in petty cases / C. Appeals in case of Acquittal / D. No appeals in certain cases when accused pleads guilty

List – II: 1. Section 375 / 2. Section 378 / 3. Section 376 / 4. Section 374

Options:

• (a) 3 2 1 4
• (b) 1 3 2 4
• (c) 3 1 4 2
• (d) 4 3 2 1 ✓

Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1

Reasoning: A→4 (374), B→3 (376), C→2 (378), D→1 (375). Section 374: Appeals from conviction. Section 376: No appeal in petty cases. Section 378: Appeal in acquittal. Section 375: No appeal when accused pleads guilty.

Question 111 (CrPC)

Question: In a criminal proceeding, ‘Charge’ is framed by:

प्रश्न: एक आपराधिक कार्यवाही में ‘आरोप’ विरचित किया जाता है:

Options:

• (a) The Police / पुलिस द्वारा
• (b) The Court / न्यायालय द्वारा ✓
• (c) The Complainant / परिवादी द्वारा
• (d) The Executive Magistrate / कार्यपालक मजिस्ट्रेट द्वारा

Answer: (b) The Court

Reasoning: Only court frames charges after examining evidence in preliminary investigation. Police cannot frame charges; they file FIR and investigation report. Formal charge under Section 223-225 CrPC is responsibility of court.

Question 114 (CrPC)

Question: Which of the Section of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 provides that the person accused can offence shall be a competent witness for the defence?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की कौन-सी धारा यह प्रावधान करती है कि एक अपराध का अभियुक्त बचाव के संबंध में एक सक्षम साक्षी होगा?

Options:

• (a) Section 313 / धारा 313
• (b) Section 312 / धारा 312
• (c) Section 316 / धारा 316
• (d) Section 315 / धारा 315 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 315

Reasoning: Section 315 CrPC provides that accused can give evidence in his own defense. This is fundamental right protection. Before 1972, accused was competent but not compellable witness. Now accused has choice to give evidence or remain silent.

Question 118 (CrPC)

Question: The term ‘Local Jurisdiction’ has been defined under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

प्रश्न: ‘स्थानीय अधिकारिता’ शब्द को दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत परिभाषित किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Section 2(1)
• (b) Section 2(0)
• (c) Section 2(k)
• (d) Section 2(j) ✓

Answer: (d) Section 2(j)

Reasoning: Section 2(j) CrPC defines ‘Local Jurisdiction’. It refers to jurisdiction based on territorial limits where offense was committed or offender is found. This is fundamental for determining which court has jurisdiction.

Question 122 (CrPC)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides sentence of imprisonment in default of fine?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की किस धारा में जुर्माना देने में चूक होने पर कारावास के दण्ड की व्यवस्था की गई है?

Options:

• (a) Section 31
• (b) Section 30 (1) ✓
• (c) Section 34
• (d) Section 32

Answer: (b) Section 30 (1)

Reasoning: Section 30(1) CrPC specifies imprisonment in default of fine. Proportionate imprisonment for non-payment of fine is prescribed. This ensures compliance with fine provisions of court orders.

Question 125 (CrPC)

Question: A Magistrate not being empowered by law in this behalf attaches and sells property under Section 83 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 his proceedings:

प्रश्न: एक मजिस्ट्रेट जो विधि द्वारा इस निमित्त सशक्त न होते हुये संपत्ति को दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की धारा 83 के अधीन जब्त करता है और उसका विक्रय करता है, उसकी कार्यवाही:

Options:

• (a) Shall be voidable / शून्यकरणीय होगी
• (b) Shall be void / शून्य होगी ✓
• (c) Shall be merely irregular / मात्र अनियमित होगी
• (d) Shall not be void if he had acted in good faith

Answer: (b) Shall be void

Reasoning: If Magistrate acts beyond jurisdiction/authority, proceedings are void ab initio (void from beginning), not merely irregular or voidable. Void means act has no legal effect whatsoever.

Question 128 (CrPC)

Question: Under Section 459 of Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2005 substituted the words less than ‘Ten Rupees’ by the words less than:

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता (संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2005 की धारा 459 के अन्तर्गत ‘दस रुपये से कम शब्दों को प्रतिस्थापित किया गया:

Options:

• (a) Two Hundred Rupees / दो सौ रुपये
• (b) Five Hundred Rupees / पांच सौ रुपये ✓
• (c) Two Thousand Rupees / दो हजार रुपये
• (d) One Thousand Rupees / एक हजार रुपये

Answer: (b) Five Hundred Rupees

Reasoning: 2005 Amendment increased fine threshold from ₹10 to ₹500 for various provisions. This reflects inflation adjustment and increased penalty standards.

Question 129 (CrPC)

Question: Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under Section 306 Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 when:

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की धारा 306 में सह-अपराधी को क्षमादान दिये जाने का प्रावधान किया गया है जब:

Options:

• (a) He is declared insane
• (b) He is not in a position to stand trial due to infirm health
• (c) He undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the offence ✓
• (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) He undertakes to make full and true disclosure

Reasoning: Section 306 CrPC allows pardon to accomplice who provides full and truthful disclosure of facts about offense. This encourages testimony and helps prosecution by obtaining evidence from participant in crime.

Question 131 (CrPC)

Question: Who prepares a panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutor?

प्रश्न: लोक अभियोजक की नियुक्ति के लिये नामों का पैनल कौन तैयार करता है?

Options:

• (a) Session’s Judge / सेशन न्यायाधीश
• (b) District Magistrate / जिला अधिकारी
• (c) District Supply Officer / जिला आपूर्ति अधिकारी
• (d) District Magistrate in consultation with Session’s Judge ✓

Answer: (d) District Magistrate in consultation with Session’s Judge

Reasoning: Section 24 CrPC provides that District Magistrate in consultation with Session Judge prepares panel of names for appointment of Public Prosecutors. This ensures proper selection and checks.

Question 136 (CrPC)

Question: Which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with ‘Victim Compensation Scheme’?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की कौन-सी धारा ‘पीड़ित प्रतिकर स्कीम’ से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 437 A / धारा 437-क
• (b) Section 436 A / धारा 436-क
• (c) Section 105 A / धारा 105-क
• (d) Section 357A / धारा 357-क ✓

Answer: (d) Section 357A

Reasoning: Section 357A CrPC (added in 2009) deals with Victim Compensation Scheme. Court may direct state to pay compensation to victim for injury/loss suffered. This recognizes victim’s rights in criminal justice system.

Question 139 (CrPC)

Question: Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the accused can file written statements in support of his defence?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 के निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रावधान के तहत अभियुक्त अपने बचाव के समर्थन में लिखित कथन दर्ज कर सकता है?

Options:

• (a) Section 231 (2) / धारा 231 (2)
• (b) Section 230 (2) / धारा 230 (2)
• (c) Section 233 (2) / धारा 233 (2) ✓
• (d) Section 232 (2) / धारा 232 (2)

Answer: (c) Section 233 (2)

Reasoning: Section 233(2) CrPC allows accused to file written statement in his defense after prosecution completes its case. This is part of fair trial guarantee allowing accused proper opportunity for defense.

Question 143 (CrPC)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C., 1973 prohibits the male Police Officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1973 की निम्न में से कौन-सी धारा किसी पुरुष पुलिस अधिकारी का महिला की गिरफ्तारी के समय उसके शरीर को छूने से प्रतिबंधित करती है?

Options:

• (a) Proviso of Section 42 (2) / धारा 42(2) का परंतुक
• (b) Proviso of Section 41 (1) / धारा 41(1) का परंतुक
• (c) Proviso of Section 46 (1) / धारा 46(1) का परंतुक ✓
• (d) None of the above / उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c) Proviso of Section 46 (1)

Reasoning: Section 46(1) CrPC Proviso states that no male police officer shall touch woman’s person during arrest. Female police officer must be present for arresting/searching woman. This protects dignity and modesty of female persons.

Question 146 (CrPC)

Question: Match the List – I with List – II:

A. Section 272 / B. Section 2(d) / C. Section 321 / D. Section 257

List – II: 1. Complaint / 2. Language of the Court / 3. Withdrawal of complaint / 4. Withdrawal from prosecution

Options:

• (a) 2 3 4 1
• (b) 4 3 2 1
• (c) 3 2 1 4
• (d) 2 1 4 3 ✓

Answer: (d) 2 1 4 3

Reasoning: A(272)→2: Language of court. B(2(d))→1: Definition of complaint. C(321)→4: Withdrawal from prosecution. D(257)→3: Withdrawal of complaint.

Question 148 (CrPC)

Question: Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code, proclamation can be issued for a person absconding?

प्रश्न: दण्ड प्रक्रिया संहिता की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत किसी फरार व्यक्ति के लिये उदघोषणा जारी की जा सकती है?

Options:

• (a) Section 82 / धारा 82 ✓
• (b) Section 83 / धारा 83
• (c) Section 80 / धारा 80
• (d) Section 81 / धारा 81

Answer: (a) Section 82

Reasoning: Section 82 CrPC provides for issuance of proclamation for person absconding or believed to be absconding. After proclamation, if person not surrenders within prescribed time, properties can be attached and sold. This is enforcement mechanism against absconders.

UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022, , INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT, 1872

Question 56 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is NOT related with the criminal matters?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की कौन-सी धारा आपराधिक मामलों से संबंधित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Section 133 / धारा 133
• (b) Section 27 / धारा 27
• (c) Section 53 / धारा 53
• (d) Section 23 / धारा 23 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 23

Reasoning: Section 23 deals with admissions in civil matters. Sections 27, 53, 133 relate to criminal matters (confession, medical examination, hostile witness). Section 23 applies to admissions in civil cases.

Question 59 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following is correctly matched?

List – I: A. Indecent and scandalous question / B. Confidential communication with legal advisor / C. Questions intended to insult or annoy / D. Burden of proof as to particular fact

List – II: 1. Section 151 / 2. Section 127 / 3. Section 155 / 4. Section 106

Options:

• (a) – Correct matching provided

Reasoning: A→1 (Section 151: Indecent questions). B→2 (Section 127: Legal privilege). C→3 (Section 155: Hostile witness). D→4 (Section 106: Burden of proof).

Question 62 (Evidence Act)

Question: Who among the following does NOT come within the purview of term “Court” as given under the Indian Evidence Act?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम के अन्तर्गत दिये गये “न्यायालय’ शब्द की परिधि में अधोलिखित में से कौन-सा सम्मिलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Judges / न्यायाधीश
• (b) Arbitrators / मध्यतथ ✓
• (c) The person legally authorised to take evidence
• (d) Magistrates / मजिस्ट्रेट

Answer: (b) Arbitrators

Reasoning: Section 3 Evidence Act defines “Court” to include Judges, Magistrates, and persons authorized to take evidence. Arbitrators are not covered as they are private adjudicators, not court proceedings.

Question 64 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of opinion as to digital signature?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की कौन-सी धारा आंकिक हस्ताक्षर की राय की सुसंगति से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 46 A / धारा 64-क
• (b) Section 48 A / धारा 48-क
• (c) Section 47 A / धारा 47-क ✓
• (d) Section 49 A / धारा 49-क

Answer: (c) Section 47 A

Reasoning: Section 47A Evidence Act (added post-IT Act 2000) deals with relevancy of opinion on digital signature. Expert opinion on digital signatures is admissible evidence in digital age crimes.

Question 68 (Evidence Act)

Question: The case of Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. Emperor relates to:

प्रश्न: पाकला नारायण स्वामी बनाम सम्राट का वाद संबंधित है:

Options:

• (a) Accomplice / सह-अपराधी से
• (b) Doctrine of estoppel / विबंधन के सिद्धांत से
• (c) Cross-examination / प्रति-परीक्षा से
• (d) Dying declaration / मृत्युकालीन कथन से ✓

Answer: (d) Dying declaration

Reasoning: Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor is a landmark case on dying declaration. Court held that dying declaration is admissible and reliable evidence as person approaching death is unlikely to lie.

Question 70 (Evidence Act)

Question: Section 131 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was amended in the year:

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की धारा 131 को संशोधित किया गया, वर्ष:

Options:

• (a) 2000 ✓
• (b) 1999
• (c) 2002
• (d) 2001

Answer: (a) 2000

Reasoning: Section 131 was amended in 2000 to include crimes against women. The amendment expanded definition of situations where person need not answer questions, specifically protecting women.

Question 76 (Evidence Act)

Question: R. Vs. Lumley is a landmark judgement related with which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

प्रश्न: आर. बनाम लूमली भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की किस धारा से संबंद्ध एक ऐतिहासिक फैसला है?

Options:

• (a) Section 105 / धारा 105
• (b) Section 102 / धारा 102
• (c) Section 107 / धारा 107 ✓
• (d) Section 106 / धारा 106

Answer: (c) Section 107

Reasoning: R. v. Lumley case relates to burden of proof and presumptions under Section 107 Evidence Act regarding exceptions.

Question 79 (Evidence Act)

Question: ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’. The facts that ‘A’ had murdered ‘C’ and that ‘B’ had tried to extort money from ‘A’ by threatening to make his knowledge public are relevant under:

प्रश्न: ‘क’ की हत्या के लिये ‘क’ का विचारण किया जाता है। ये तथ्य कि ‘क’ ने ‘ग’ की हत्या की, कि ‘क’ जानता था कि ‘क’ ने ‘ग’ की हत्या की है और ‘क’ में अपनी इस जानकारी को लोकविदित करने की धमकी देकर ‘क’ से धन उद्दाहित करने का प्रयत्न किया था, सुसंगत है:

Options:

• (a) Section 9 / धारा 9
• (b) Section 8 / धारा 8 ✓
• (c) Section 11 / धारा 11
• (d) Section 7 / धारा 7

Answer: (b) Section 8

Reasoning: Section 8 Evidence Act deals with relevancy of facts in issue and facts which show or constitute any part of any offense. Here, fact of prior murder and knowledge relevant to motive for murder.

Question 83 (Evidence Act)

Question: Match List – I with List – II:

A. Refreshing memory / B. Dying declaration / C. Leading questions / D. Hostile witness

List – II: 1. Section 159 / 2. Section 154 / 3. Section 32(1) / 4. Section 141

Options:

• (a) 3 2 4 1
• (b) 1 3 4 2 ✓
• (c) 1 2 3 4
• (d) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (b) 1 3 4 2

Reasoning: A(Refreshing)→1(159). B(Dying)→3(32). C(Leading)→4(141). D(Hostile)→2(154).

Question 85 (Evidence Act)

Question: In which of the following cases, Constitutional Validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 14 of the Constitution?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित वादों में से किसमें भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 27 की संवैधानिकता को संविधान के अनुच्छेद 14 के अतिक्रमण के आधार पर चुनौती दी गई थी?

Options:

• (a) State of U.P. Vs. Deoman Upadhyaya ✓
• (b) State of Bombay Vs. Kathi Kalu
• (c) Inayatullah Vs. State of Maharashtra
• (d) Nandini Satpathi Vs. P. L. Dhani

Answer: (a) State of U.P. Vs. Deoman Upadhyaya

Reasoning: This landmark case challenged Section 27 (confessions discovered during custodial interrogation) as violative of equality before law. Court upheld Section 27 as valid but with safeguards.

Question 87 (Evidence Act)

Question: Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was added in the year:

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 में धारा 113-क जोड़ी गई:

Options:

• (a) 1983 ✓
• (b) 1982
• (c) 1980
• (d) 1988

Answer: (a) 1983

Reasoning: Section 113-A (Presumption as to rape) was added in 1983 by Criminal Law Amendment Act. It creates presumption in rape cases regarding victim’s consent.

Question 90 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following cases relates with dying declaration?

प्रश्न: अधोलिखित में कौन-सा वाद मृत्युकालीन कथन से संबंधित है:

Options:

• (a) Queen Vs. Abdullah / क्वीन बनाम अब्दुल्ला ✓
• (b) Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor
• (c) R. Vs. Prince
• (d) R. Vs. Gorachand Gopi

Answer: (a) Queen Vs. Abdullah

Reasoning: Queen v. Abdullah is landmark case on dying declaration. Established that dying declaration is admissible even without cross-examination as person about to die unlikely to falsify.

Question 95 (Evidence Act)

Question: Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the Judge’s power to put questions or order the production of any document is provided?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की किस धारा के अन्तर्गत प्रश्न करने या कोई दस्तावेज पेश करने का आदेश देने की न्यायाधीश की शक्ति का उपबंध है?

Options:

• (a) Section 164 / धारा 164
• (b) Section 165 / धारा 165 ✓
• (c) Section 162 / धारा 162
• (d) Section 163 / धारा 163

Answer: (b) Section 165

Reasoning: Section 165 Evidence Act provides Judge’s power to put any question to any witness or order production of document. This ensures complete examination and proper evidence.

Question 100 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act imposes an obligation on public officer to provide certified copy of public document?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी धारा लोक अधिकारी पर लोक दस्तावेज की प्रमाणित प्रति देने का कर्तव्य अधिरोपित करती है?

Options:

• (a) Section 73 / धारा 73
• (b) Section 72 / धारा 72
• (c) Section 77 / धारा 77
• (d) Section 76 / धारा 76 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 76

Reasoning: Section 76 Evidence Act imposes duty on public officer to provide certified copy of public document to person making request. This ensures access to authentic public records.

Question 104 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Impeaching credit of witness – Section 155
• (b) Hostile witness – Section 154
• (c) Refreshing memory – Section 159
• (d) Professional communication – Section 124 ✗

Answer: (d) Professional communication – Section 124

Reasoning: Professional communications are covered under Section 126, not 124. Section 124 deals with legal communications between lawyer and client (Solicitor-Client privilege).

Question 109 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following kinds of jurisdiction is NOT provided under Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की धारा 41 में निम्न में से किस प्रकार की अधिकारिता का उल्लेख नहीं किया गया है?

Options:

• (a) Admiralty / नौवाहिक विभाग
• (b) Revenue / राजस्व ✓
• (c) Probate / प्रोबेट
• (d) Insolvency / दिवालियापन

Answer: (b) Revenue

Reasoning: Section 41 Evidence Act lists admiralty, probate, ecclesiastical jurisdictions but excludes revenue jurisdiction. Revenue matters follow different procedure.

Question 107 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for admissibility of secondary evidence?

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की कौन-सी धारा द्वितीयक साक्ष्य की ग्राह्यता का प्रावधान करती है?

Options:

• (a) Section 61 / धारा 61
• (b) Section 60 / धारा 60
• (c) Section 65 / धारा 65 ✓
• (d) Section 63 / धारा 63

Answer: (c) Section 65

Reasoning: Section 65 Evidence Act provides for admissibility of secondary evidence (copies, oral accounts) when primary evidence cannot be produced. It includes circumstances where secondary evidence is acceptable.

Question 119 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which of the following facts does NOT mention as showing existence of state of mind or of body or bodily feeling under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा तथ्य भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 14 में मन या शरीर की दशा या शारीरिक संवेदना का अस्तित्व दर्शाने के रूप में वर्णित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Good faith / सद्भावपूर्वक
• (b) Knowledge / ज्ञान
• (c) Motive / हेतु ✓
• (d) Negligence / उपेक्षा

Answer: (c) Motive

Reasoning: Section 14 Evidence Act lists acts showing state of mind, etc., as good faith, knowledge, intention, negligence. Motive is separate concept dealt in Section 8 (facts in issue).

Question 121 (Evidence Act)

Question: Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says: “facts admitted need not be proved”?

प्रश्न: निम्न में से भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की कौन धारा कहती है: “स्वीकृत तथ्यों को साबित करने की आवश्यकता नहीं होती”?

Options:

• (a) Section 55 / धारा 55
• (b) Section 18 / धारा 18
• (c) Section 21 / धारा 21
• (d) Section 58 / धारा 58 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 58

Reasoning: Section 58 Evidence Act states that facts admitted in judgment of court or admitted during proceeding need not be proved. Admission removes burden of proof.

Question 124 (Evidence Act)

Question: Relevancy of statements in maps, chart and plans is provided under:

प्रश्न: मानचित्रों, चार्टों और रेखाचित्रों के कथनों की सुसंगति दी गई है:

Options:

• (a) Section 37 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
• (b) Section 36 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ✓
• (c) Section 39 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
• (d) Section 38 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Answer: (b) Section 36

Reasoning: Section 36 Evidence Act deals with relevancy of statements in maps, charts, plans which are admissible if made by someone with knowledge of facts shown.

Question 133 (Evidence Act)

Question: Section 113-B, ‘presumption as to dowry death’ was added to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in:

प्रश्न: धारा 113-ख, ‘दहेज हत्या की उपधारणा’ भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 में जोड़ी गई:

Options:

• (a) 1983
• (b) (c) 1986 ✓
• (c) 1962
• (d) 1961

Answer: (b) 1986

Reasoning: Section 113-B was added in 1986 by Criminal Law Amendment Act. It creates presumption in dowry death cases that death was caused by dowry harassment.

Question 138 (Evidence Act)

Question: Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to:

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 का अध्याय V संबंधित है:

Options:

• (a) Facts which need not be proved / ऐसे तथ्य जिन्हें साबित करने की जरूरत नहीं है
• (b) Documentary evidence / दस्तावेजी साक्ष्य ✓
• (c) Expert opinion / विशेषज्ञ की राय
• (d) Oral evidence / मौखिक साक्ष्य

Answer: (b) Documentary evidence

Reasoning: Chapter V (Sections 61-90) Evidence Act deals with documentary evidence including primary evidence, secondary evidence, examination of documents, etc.

Question 140 (Evidence Act)

Question: The case of Dagdu Vs. State of Maharashtra is related with:

प्रश्न: डागडू बनाम महाराष्ट्र राज्य का वाद संबंधित है:

Options:

• (a) Burden of proof / सबूत का भार
• (b) Accomplice / सह-अपराधी ✓
• (c) Hostile witness / पक्षद्रोही साक्षी
• (d) Res-gestae / रेस-जेस्टे

Answer: (b) Accomplice

Reasoning: Dagdu case establishes principles regarding accomplice evidence. Accomplice evidence is admissible but requires corroboration from independent evidence for conviction.

Question 142 (Evidence Act)

Question: Proof as to verification of digital signature’ is provided under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

प्रश्न: ‘अंकीय हस्ताक्षर के सत्यापन के बारे में संबंधित प्रावधान भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की किस धारा में दिए गये हैं?

Options:

• (a) Section 73 A / धारा 73-क ✓
• (b) Section 67 A / धारा 67-क
• (c) Section 85 C / धारा 85-ग
• (d) Section 85 A / धारा 85-क

Answer: (a) Section 73 A

Reasoning: Section 73A Evidence Act (added post-IT Act) deals with digital signature verification. It allows expert opinion on digital signatures as evidence in digital age.

Question 144 (Evidence Act)

Question: Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ‘privilege’ is available to:

प्रश्न: भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 1872 की धारा 122 के अंतर्गत ‘विशेषाधिकार’ प्राप्त है:

Options:

• (a) Advocates / अधिवक्ता
• (b) Judges / न्यायाधीश
• (c) Husband and wife / पति और पत्नी ✓
• (d) Magistrates / मजिस्ट्रेट

Answer: (c) Husband and wife

Reasoning: Section 122 Evidence Act grants privilege to husband and wife. Married person cannot be compelled to disclose confidential communications with spouse without spouse’s consent. This protects marital privacy.

UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022, , UP POLICE ACT, 1861

Question 51 (Police Act)

Question: Which one of the following Paras of the Police Regulations provide that it is the personal duty of the police thana incharge not to keep a person of unsound mind in the same cell with other persons?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से पुलिस विनियमन का कौन-सा पैरा यह उपबंधित करता है कि पुलिस थानाध्यक्ष का यह व्यक्तिगत कर्तव्य है कि वह विक्षिप्तचित्त व्यक्ति को दूसरे व्यक्तियों के साथ एक ही सेल में न रखे?

Options:

• (a) Para 161 / पैरा 161 ✓
• (b) Para 160 / पैरा 160
• (c) Para 163 / पैरा 163
• (d) Para 162 / पैरा 162

Answer: (a) Para 161

Reasoning: Para 161 UP Police Regulations provides that unsound person must be kept separate to prevent harm and protect dignity. This is standard custodial care requirement.

Question 61 (Police Act)

Question: Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 is related to ‘Special Police Officers’?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की कौन-सी धारा ‘विशेष पुलिस अधिकारी’ से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 24 / धारा 24
• (b) Section 22 / धारा 22
• (c) Section 18 / धारा 18
• (d) Section 17 / धारा 17 ✓

Answer: (d) Section 17

Reasoning: Section 17 Police Act 1861 deals with appointment of special police officers. These are additional officers appointed temporarily for specific duties or areas.

Question 65 (Police Act)

Question: Which one of the following is NOT included in the word ‘Cattle’ under Police Act, 1861?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 के अन्तर्गत कौन-सा शब्द ‘ढोर’ (मवेशी) में सम्मिलित नहीं है?

Options:

• (a) Goat / बकरी
• (b) Horse / घोड़ा
• (c) (d) Dog / कुत्ता ✓
• (d) Camel / ऊँट

Answer: (c) Dog

Reasoning: Under Police Act 1861, “Cattle” includes goat, horse, camel, but not dog. Dog is considered pet/companion animal, not livestock/cattle.

Question 73 (Police Act)

Question: Provisions regarding certificates to police officers are provided under which Section of Police Act, 1861?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की किस धारा के तहत पुलिस अधिकारियों को प्रमाण-पत्र देने का प्रावधान है?

Options:

• (a) Section 6 / धारा 6
• (b) Section 5 / धारा 5
• (c) Section 8 / धारा 8 ✓
• (d) Section 7 / धारा 7

Answer: (c) Section 8

Reasoning: Section 8 Police Act 1861 deals with issuance of certificates to police officers verifying their service, rank, and conduct.

Question 78 (Police Act)

Question: Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 is related to ‘Village Police Officers’?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की निम्न में से कौन-सी धारा ‘ग्राम पुलिस अधिकारी’ से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 21 / धारा 21 ✓
• (b) Section 20 / धारा 20
• (c) Section 23 / धारा 23
• (d) Section 22 / धारा 22

Answer: (a) Section 21

Reasoning: Section 21 Police Act 1861 deals with village police officers appointed for maintaining order in villages.

Question 80 (Police Act)

Question: Which Para of U.P. Police Regulations provide that dying declaration of a seriously injured person to be recorded immediately?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन के किस पैरा के अंतर्गत यह कहा गया है कि गंभीर रूप से घायल व्यक्ति का मृत्युकालीन कथन तत्काल दर्ज किया जाना है?

Options:

• (a) Para 113
• (b) Para 112
• (c) Para 115 ✓
• (d) Para 114

Answer: (c) Para 115

Reasoning: Para 115 UP Police Regulations requires police to immediately record dying declaration of seriously injured person as it is important evidence.

Question 92 (Police Act)

Question: Which one of the following Sections in Police Act, 1861 contains provisions relating to General Diary’?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की निम्नलिखित में से किस धारा में ‘सामान्य डायरी’ से संबंधित उपबंधों का प्रावधान है?

Options:

• (a) Section 45 / धारा 45
• (b) Section 44 / धारा 44 ✓
• (c) Section 49 / धारा 49
• (d) Section 46 / धारा 46

Answer: (b) Section 44

Reasoning: Section 44 Police Act 1861 deals with General Diary (GD) where all police daily events, complaints, activities are recorded.

Question 93 (Police Act)

Question: Which Chapter of U.P. Police Regulations deals with “Mounted Police”?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन का कौन-सा अध्याय “घुड़सवार पुलिस” से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Chapter 7 / अध्याय 7 ✓
• (b) Chapter 5 / अध्याय 5
• (c) Chapter 6 / अध्याय 6
• (d) Chapter 8 / अध्याय 8

Answer: (a) Chapter 7

Reasoning: Chapter 7 UP Police Regulations deals with mounted police (police on horseback) – their duties, conduct, training requirements.

Question 97 (Police Act)

Question: Which Chapter of the U.P. Police Regulation related to ‘Arrest, Bail and Custody’?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन का कौन-सा अध्याय ‘गिरफ्तारी, जमानत और अभिरक्षा’ से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Chapter 20 / अध्याय 20
• (b) Chapter 13 / अध्याय 13 ✓
• (c) Chapter 10 / अध्याय 10
• (d) Chapter 22 / अध्याय 22

Answer: (b) Chapter 13

Reasoning: Chapter 13 UP Police Regulations covers arrest, bail, and custody procedures including detention norms, bail conditions, and prisoner custody rules.

Question 105 (Police Act)

Question: Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 deals with power of District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals?

प्रश्न: पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की कौन-सी धारा जिला पुलिस अधीक्षक को त्योहारों के अवसर पर सड़कों पर संगीत की ध्वनि को नियंत्रित करने की शक्ति प्रदान करती है?

Options:

• (a) Section 27 (Clause 2)
• (b) Section 15 A (Clause 4)
• (c) Section 16 (Clause 3)
• (d) Section 30 (Clause 4) ✓

Answer: (d) Section 30 (Clause 4)

Reasoning: Section 30 Police Act 1861 grants superintendent power to regulate musical instruments on public roads during festivals to prevent noise pollution and maintain public order.

Question 115 (Police Act)

Question: Which Chapter of the U.P. Police Regulation is related to “Village Police’?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन का कौन-सा अध्याय ‘ग्राम पुलिस से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Chapter 11 / अध्याय 11
• (b) Chapter 10 / अध्याय 10
• (c) Chapter 12 / अध्याय 12
• (d) Chapter 9 / अध्याय 9 ✓

Answer: (d) Chapter 9

Reasoning: Chapter 9 UP Police Regulations deals with village police structure, duties, and administration.

Question 117 (Police Act)

Question: Which one of the following Sections deals with powers of special police officers under the Police Act, 1861?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से पुलिस अधिनियम, 1861 की कौन-सी धारा विशेष पुलिस अधिकारियों की शक्ति से संबंधित है?

Options:

• (a) Section 18 / धारा 18 ✓
• (b) Section 17 / धारा 17
• (c) Section 20 / धारा 20
• (d) Section 19 / धारा 19

Answer: (a) Section 18

Reasoning: Section 18 Police Act 1861 deals with powers of special police officers including authority to maintain order, make arrests, and enforce law.

Question 127 (Police Act)

Question: Which Paras of the U.P. Police Regulations deals with ‘the Absconded Offenders’?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन के कौन-से पैरा ‘फरार अपराधियों’ के बारे में बताते हैं?

Options:

• (a) 196 to 214
• (b) 190 to 195
• (c) 223 to 276
• (d) 215 to 222 ✓

Answer: (d) 215 to 222

Reasoning: Paras 215-222 UP Police Regulations deal with absconded offenders including procedures for search, proclamation, attachment of property.

Question 135 (Police Act)

Question: Which provision of Para of U.P. Police Regulations is repealed that the police is under the control of the Public Prosecutor?

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन के किस पैरा में वर्णित प्रावधान को निरस्त किया गया है कि लोक अभियोजक के नियंत्रण में पुलिस रहेगी?

Options:

• (a) Para 40 / पैरा 40
• (b) Para 38 / पैरा 38
• (c) Para 36 / पैरा 36
• (d) Para 39 / पैरा 39 ✓

Answer: (d) Para 39

Reasoning: Para 39 UP Police Regulations (now repealed) previously provided police under public prosecutor’s control. This has been changed to maintain police independence in investigation.

Question 149 (Police Act)

Question: According to Para 170, of UP Police Regulations, Public Prosecutor will inspect ‘Malkhana’:

प्रश्न: उ. प्र. पुलिस विनियमन के पैरा 170 के अनुसार लोक अभियोजक ‘मालखाने’ का निरीक्षण करेगा:

Options:

• (a) Once in a six months / छ: माह में एक बार
• (b) Once in a year / वर्ष में एक बार
• (c) Once in a month / एक माह में एक बार ✓
• (d) Once in three months / तीन माह में एक बार

Answer: (c) Once in a month

Reasoning: Para 170 requires Public Prosecutor to inspect Malkhana (police evidence room/store) once monthly to ensure proper storage, labeling, and security of seized articles.

UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022, General Knowledge

QUESTION 1 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Headline inflation in India is currently based on:

प्रश्न: वर्तमान में भारत में हेडलाइन मुद्रास्फीति आधारित है:

Options:
(a) Urban Consumer Price Index / शहरी उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक
(b) Rural Consumer Price Index / ग्रामीण उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक
(c) Wholesale Price Index / थोक मूल्य सूचकांक
(d) Combined Consumer Price Index / संयुक्त उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक ✓

Answer: (d) Combined Consumer Price Index

Reasoning: Headline inflation uses combined CPI comprising rural and urban indices. RBI uses combined CPI for monetary policy, reflecting overall price changes affecting all consumers.

QUESTION 2 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Rohtas Fort in Punjab was constructed by:

प्रश्न: पंजाब के रोहतास दुर्ग का निर्माण किया था:

Options:
(a) Shershah Suri / शेरशाह सूरी ✓
(b) Babar / बाबर
(c) Akbar / अकबर
(d) Jahangir / जहाँगीर

Answer: (a) Shershah Suri

Reasoning: Rohtas Fort (Rohtas Qila) near Sasaram built by Sher Shah Suri in 16th century. Massive structure with strong fortifications, now UNESCO World Heritage Site.

QUESTION 3 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Given below are two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Genetics is study of pattern of inheritance and variation of characters from parents to offspring.

Reason (R): Inheritance is the process of transfer of characters from one to the next generation.

प्रश्न: नीचे दिए गए दो कथन दिए गए हैं:

कथन (A): आनुवंशिकी माता-पिता से संतानों में लक्षणों के विरासत और विविधता के पैटर्न का अध्ययन है।

कारण (R): विरासत अगली पीढ़ी को लक्षणों के हस्तांतरण की प्रक्रिया है।

Options:
(a) Both true but (R) not correct explanation / दोनों सत्य हैं लेकिन (R) सही व्याख्या नहीं है
(b) Both true and (R) is correct explanation / दोनों सत्य हैं और (R) सही व्याख्या है ✓
(c) (A) false but (R) true / (A) गलत लेकिन (R) सत्य है
(d) (A) true but (R) false / (A) सत्य लेकिन (R) गलत है

Answer: (b) Both true and (R) is correct explanation

Reasoning: Both statements correct. Genetics studies inheritance patterns, and inheritance IS the process by which characters transfer. R correctly explains A.

QUESTION 4 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which one of the following is NOT correct with respect to the number of seats won by different political parties in the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly Election 2022?

प्रश्न: उत्तर प्रदेश विधानसभा चुनाव 2022 में विभिन्न राजनीतिक दलों द्वारा जीते गए सीटों के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से एक सही नहीं है?

Options:
(a) Rashtriya Lok Dal – 08 / राष्ट्रीय लोक दल – 08
(b) Suheldev Bharatiya Samaj Party – 05 / सुहेलदेव भारतीय समाज पार्टी – 05 ✗
(c) Jansatta Dal Loktantrik – 02 / जनसत्ता दल लोकतांत्रिक – 02
(d) Nirbal Indian Shoshit Hamara Aam Dal – 06 / निर्बल भारतीय शोषित हमारा आम दल – 06

Answer: (b) Suheldev Bharatiya Samaj Party – incorrect number

Reasoning: SBSP won different number of seats than listed. Question asks which is NOT correct, making option (b) the answer.

QUESTION 5 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The date for the adoption of the Constitution mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is:

प्रश्न: भारत के संविधान स्वीकृति की तिथि जो कि संविधान की उद्देशिका में वर्णित है:

Options:
(a) 26 November, 1949 / 26 नवंबर, 1949 ✓
(b) 15th August, 1947 / 15 अगस्त, 1947
(c) 26th January, 1950 / 26 जनवरी, 1950
(d) None of the above / उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a) 26 November, 1949

Reasoning: Constitution adopted 26 November 1949, came into force 26 January 1950. Two important constitutional dates – adoption and implementation.

QUESTION 6 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the concept of Equality before law?

प्रश्न: भारत के संविधान का कौन-सा अनुच्छेद कानून से पहले समानता की अवधारणा से संबंधित है?

Options:
(a) Article 14 / अनुच्छेद 14
(b) Article 15 / अनुच्छेद 15
(c) Article 16 / अनुच्छेद 16
(d) Article 17 / अनुच्छेद 17

Answer: (a) Article 14

Reasoning: Article 14 states “Equality before law” – state shall not deny any person equality before law or equal protection. Foundational right ensuring equal treatment.

QUESTION 7 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of Indian Dance Forms?

प्रश्न: निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी भारतीय नृत्य शैलियों का सही कालानुक्रम है?

Options:
(a) Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi, Kathakali
(b) Kathakali, Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi
(c) Odissi, Kathakali, Bharatanatyam, Kathak
(d) Kathak, Odissi, Bharatanatyam, Kathakali

Answer: (a) Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi, Kathakali

Reasoning: Chronological order of classical dances. Bharatanatyam oldest (11-12 cent), Kathak medieval, Odissi ancient, Kathakali 16th century.

QUESTION 8 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The first non-aligned movement summit was held in:

प्रश्न: पहली गुटनिरपेक्ष आंदोलन शिखर बैठक आयोजित की गई थी:

Options:
(a) Delhi / दिल्ली
(b) Belgrade / बेलग्रेड
(c) Cairo / काहिरा
(d) Bandung / बांडुंग

Answer: (b) Belgrade

Reasoning: First NAM summit held 1961 in Belgrade (Yugoslavia). Attended by leaders from 25 non-aligned countries including India’s Nehru.

QUESTION 9 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The “Green Revolution” in India was primarily associated with:

प्रश्न: भारत में “हरित क्रांति” मुख्य रूप से संबंधित थी:

Options:
(a) Sugarcane cultivation / गन्ने की खेती
(b) Wheat and Rice cultivation / गेहूँ और चावल की खेती
(c) Cotton cultivation / कपास की खेती
(d) Tea cultivation / चाय की खेती

Answer: (b) Wheat and Rice cultivation

Reasoning: Green Revolution (1960s) focused on wheat and rice through high-yield varieties, fertilizers, irrigation. Norman Borlaug’s wheat varieties key to success.

QUESTION 10 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bengal”?

प्रश्न: किस नदी को “बंगाल का दुःख” के नाम से जाना जाता है?

Options:
(a) Ganga / गंगा
(b) Brahmaputra / ब्रह्मपुत्र
(c) Damodar / दामोदर ✓
(d) Hooghly / हुगली

Answer: (c) Damodar

Reasoning: Damodar known for devastating floods in Bengal. Called “Sorrow of Bengal” due to frequent flooding and destructive nature. Now controlled by Damodar Valley Corporation dams.

QUESTION 11 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Regulating Act was passed in:

प्रश्न: नियामक अधिनियम पारित किया गया था:

Options:
(a) 1773 / 1773 ✓
(b) 1783 / 1783
(c) 1793 / 1793
(d) 1803 / 1803

Answer: (a) 1773

Reasoning: Regulating Act of 1773 first legislation regulating British East India Company. Made Governor-General supreme authority over all company officials in India.

QUESTION 12 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which of the following is the largest plateau in India?

प्रश्न: भारत का सबसे बड़ा पठार कौन-सा है?

Options:
(a) Chota Nagpur Plateau / छोटा नागपुर पठार
(b) Deccan Plateau / दक्कन पठार ✓
(c) Malwa Plateau / मालवा पठार
(d) Telangana Plateau / तेलंगाना पठार

Answer: (b) Deccan Plateau

Reasoning: Deccan Plateau largest in India, covering about 5 lakh sq km. Located in south-central India, comprises most of Peninsular India.

QUESTION 13 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The concept of “Fundamental Rights” in Indian Constitution was inspired by:

प्रश्न: भारतीय संविधान में “मौलिक अधिकारों” की अवधारणा किससे प्रेरित थी?

Options:
(a) British Constitution / ब्रिटिश संविधान
(b) American Constitution / अमेरिकी संविधान
(c) French Constitution / फ्रांसीसी संविधान
(d) USSR Constitution / USSR संविधान

Answer: (b) American Constitution

Reasoning: Fundamental Rights concept inspired by American Constitution’s Bill of Rights. Indian Constitution Part III (Articles 12-35) lists fundamental rights.

QUESTION 14 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which Indian state has the maximum number of districts?

प्रश्न: कौन सा भारतीय राज्य अधिकतम जिलों की संख्या है?

Options:
(a) Uttar Pradesh / उत्तर प्रदेश
(b) Madhya Pradesh / मध्य प्रदेश
(c) Rajasthan / राजस्थान
(d) Maharashtra / महाराष्ट्र

Answer: (a) Uttar Pradesh

Reasoning: Uttar Pradesh has maximum districts (75 districts). Largest state by population with most administrative divisions for governance.

QUESTION 15 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Khilafat Movement in India was associated with:

प्रश्न: भारत में खिलाफत आंदोलन संबंधित था:

Options:
(a) Hindus-Muslim unity / हिंदू-मुस्लिम एकता
(b) Protection of Ottoman Empire / ओटोमन साम्राज्य की सुरक्षा
(c) Religious freedom / धार्मिक स्वतंत्रता
(d) Economic justice / आर्थिक न्याय

Answer: (a) Hindus-Muslim unity

Reasoning: Khilafat Movement (1919-1924) aimed at Hindu-Muslim unity against British. Led by Ali Brothers, supported by Gandhi. Important anti-colonial joint movement.

QUESTION 16 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which article of the Constitution provides for the President’s pardon power?

प्रश्न: संविधान का कौन-सा अनुच्छेद राष्ट्रपति की क्षमा शक्ति प्रदान करता है?

Options:
(a) Article 70 / अनुच्छेद 70
(b) Article 71 / अनुच्छेद 71
(c) Article 72 / अनुच्छेद 72 ✓
(d) Article 73 / अनुच्छेद 73

Answer: (c) Article 72

Reasoning: Article 72 Constitution provides President with pardoning power. Can pardon, reprieve, respite, remission of sentences in criminal cases.

QUESTION 17 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The World’s highest waterfall is:

प्रश्न: विश्व का सबसे ऊँचा जलप्रपात है:

Options:
(a) Niagara Falls / नियाग्रा फॉल्स
(b) Victoria Falls / विक्टोरिया फॉल्स
(c) Angel Falls / एंजल फॉल्स ✓
(d) Yosemite Falls / योसेमाइट फॉल्स

Answer: (c) Angel Falls

Reasoning: Angel Falls in Venezuela highest waterfall (979 meters). Located in Canaima National Park, one of world’s natural wonders.

QUESTION 18 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred in:

प्रश्न: जलियाँवाला बाग हत्याकांड हुआ था:

Options:
(a) 1915 / 1915
(b) 1916 / 1916
(c) 1919 / 1919 ✓
(d) 1920 / 1920

Answer: (c) 1919

Reasoning: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred 13 April 1919 in Amritsar. General Dyer ordered firing on unarmed protesters, killing hundreds. Triggered independence movement.

QUESTION 19 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which is the smallest country in the world by area?

प्रश्न: क्षेत्र के आधार पर विश्व का सबसे छोटा देश है:

Options:
(a) Monaco / मोनाको
(b) Vatican City / वेटिकन सिटी ✓
(c) San Marino / सैन मेरिनो
(d) Liechtenstein / लिकटेंस्टीन

Answer: (b) Vatican City

Reasoning: Vatican City smallest independent state (0.44 sq km). Located within Rome, seat of Catholic Church and Pope’s residence.

QUESTION 20 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Indian National Congress was founded in:

प्रश्न: भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस की स्थापना की गई थी:

Options:
(a) 1885 / 1885
(b) 1886 / 1886
(c) 1887 / 1887
(d) 1888 / 1888

Answer: (a) 1885

Reasoning: Indian National Congress founded 28 December 1885 by A.O. Hume. First organized political movement in India, played central role in independence struggle.

QUESTION 21 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which metal is the best conductor of electricity?

प्रश्न: कौन-सी धातु विद्युत की सर्वश्रेष्ठ चालक है?

Options:
(a) Copper / तांबा
(b) Silver / चाँदी ✓
(c) Gold / सोना
(d) Aluminum / एल्यूमीनियम

Answer: (b) Silver

Reasoning: Silver has highest electrical conductivity among all metals. Used in electrical contacts and high-end electronics due to superior conductivity.

QUESTION 22 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Constitution of India contains how many Articles?

प्रश्न: भारत के संविधान में कितनी धाराएं हैं?

Options:
(a) 390 / 390
(b) 394 / 394
(c) 395 / 395 ✓
(d) 398 / 398

Answer: (c) 395

Reasoning: Indian Constitution has 395 Articles. Originally had 395 articles, now amended to 465+ with amendments. Longest written constitution in world.

QUESTION 23 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The headquarters of World Health Organization (WHO) is located in:

प्रश्न: विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन (WHO) का मुख्यालय स्थित है:

Options:
(a) Geneva / जिनेवा
(b) New York / न्यूयॉर्क
(c) Paris / पेरिस
(d) London / लंदन

Answer: (a) Geneva

Reasoning: WHO headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. Established 1948 as specialized UN agency for international health issues.

QUESTION 24 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which country is the largest producer of coffee in the world?

प्रश्न: विश्व में कॉफी का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक कौन-सा देश है?

Options:
(a) Brazil / ब्राजील ✓
(b) Vietnam / वियतनाम
(c) Colombia / कोलंबिया
(d) Indonesia / इंडोनेशिया

Answer: (a) Brazil

Reasoning: Brazil produces 30%+ of world’s coffee. Ideal climate in Sao Paulo region makes it largest producer and exporter globally.

QUESTION 25 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The “Swaraj” concept was given by:

प्रश्न: “स्वराज” की अवधारणा दी गई थी:

Options:
(a) Rammohan Roy / राममोहन राय
(b) Dayanand Saraswati / दयानंद सरस्वती
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak / बाल गंगाधर तिलक ✓
(d) Sri Aurobindo / श्री अरविंद

Answer: (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Reasoning: Tilak gave “Swaraj Mera Janmadhikari” (Swaraj is my birthright) slogan. Became rallying cry for independence movement against British rule.

QUESTION 26 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which planet is known as the “Red Planet”?

प्रश्न: कौन सा ग्रह “लाल ग्रह” के नाम से जाना जाता है?

Options:
(a) Venus / शुक्र
(b) Mars / मंगल ✓
(c) Jupiter / बृहस्पति
(d) Saturn / शनि

Answer: (b) Mars

Reasoning: Mars called “Red Planet” due to iron oxide (rust) on surface giving reddish appearance. Fourth planet from sun, named after Roman god of war.

QUESTION 27 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Indian Constitution provides for which type of Government?

प्रश्न: भारतीय संविधान किस प्रकार की सरकार प्रदान करता है?

Options:
(a) Monarchy / राजतंत्र
(b) Dictatorship / तानाशाही
(c) Democracy / लोकतंत्र ✓
(d) Oligarchy / अल्पतंत्र

Answer: (c) Democracy

Reasoning: Indian Constitution establishes democratic republic. Preamble states “We, the people” – sovereignty lies with people. Parliamentary democracy system.

QUESTION 28 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which is the largest ocean in the world?

प्रश्न: विश्व का सबसे बड़ा महासागर है:

Options:
(a) Atlantic Ocean / अटलांटिक महासागर
(b) Pacific Ocean / प्रशांत महासागर ✓
(c) Indian Ocean / हिंद महासागर
(d) Arctic Ocean / आर्कटिक महासागर

Answer: (b) Pacific Ocean

Reasoning: Pacific Ocean largest covering ~165 million sq km. Greater than all land area combined, separates Asia from Americas.

QUESTION 29 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Quit India Movement was started in:

प्रश्न: भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन शुरू किया गया था:

Options:
(a) 1940 / 1940
(b) 1941 / 1941
(c) 1942 / 1942 ✓
(d) 1943 / 1943

Answer: (c) 1942

Reasoning: Quit India Movement launched 8 August 1942. Gandhi’s “Do or Die” call for immediate British withdrawal. Pivotal event in independence struggle.

QUESTION 30 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which scientist discovered the law of motion?

प्रश्न: किस वैज्ञानिक ने गति के नियम की खोज की:

Options:
(a) Albert Einstein / अल्बर्ट आइंस्टीन
(b) Isaac Newton / आइजैक न्यूटन ✓
(c) Galileo Galilei / गैलीलियो गैलीली
(d) Stephen Hawking / स्टीफन हॉकिंग

Answer: (b) Isaac Newton

Reasoning: Isaac Newton formulated three laws of motion. Fundamental principles of classical mechanics still used in physics and engineering.

QUESTION 31 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The national bird of India is:

प्रश्न: भारत का राष्ट्रीय पक्षी है:

Options:
(a) Peacock / मोर
(b) Eagle / बाज
(c) Owl / उल्लू
(d) Parrot / तोता

Answer: (a) Peacock

Reasoning: Indian Peafowl (peacock) is national bird since 1963. Replaces eagle as symbol. Depicted in Indian coat of arms, state emblem.

QUESTION 32 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which book is known as the “Bible of Business”?

प्रश्न: कौन सी किताब “व्यापार की बाइबिल” के नाम से जानी जाती है?

Options:
(a) Das Kapital / दास कैपिटल
(b) The Wealth of Nations / राष्ट्रों की संपत्ति ✓
(c) Communist Manifesto / कम्युनिस्ट घोषणापत्र
(d) Economics / अर्थशास्त्र

Answer: (b) The Wealth of Nations

Reasoning: “The Wealth of Nations” by Adam Smith (1776) foundational economics text. Called “Bible of Business” for economic principles and capitalism concepts.

QUESTION 33 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Magna Carta was signed in:

प्रश्न: मैग्ना कार्टा पर हस्ताक्षर किए गए थे:

Options:
(a) 1150 / 1150
(b) 1200 / 1200
(c) 1215 / 1215 ✓
(d) 1250 / 1250

Answer: (c) 1215

Reasoning: Magna Carta signed 15 June 1215. English charter limiting king’s power, foundation of constitutional government and rule of law.

QUESTION 34 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which gas is most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?

प्रश्न: पृथ्वी के वायुमंडल में सबसे प्रचुर गैस है:

Options:
(a) Oxygen / ऑक्सीजन
(b) Nitrogen / नाइट्रोजन ✓
(c) Carbon Dioxide / कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
(d) Argon / आर्गन

Answer: (b) Nitrogen

Reasoning: Nitrogen comprises ~78% of atmosphere. Essential for life, fixed by bacteria into usable forms. Oxygen only ~21%.

QUESTION 35 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Battle of Plassey was fought in:

प्रश्न: प्लासी की लड़ाई लड़ी गई थी:

Options:
(a) 1757 / 1757 ✓
(b) 1758 / 1758
(c) 1759 / 1759
(d) 1760 / 1760

Answer: (a) 1757

Reasoning: Battle of Plassey fought 23 June 1757. Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah. Marked beginning of British political dominance in India.

QUESTION 36 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which element has the highest atomic number?

प्रश्न: किस तत्व का परमाणु क्रमांक सबसे अधिक है?

Options:
(a) Uranium / यूरेनियम
(b) Plutonium / प्लूटोनियम
(c) Lawrencium / लॉरेंसियम
(d) Oganesson / ओगनेसन ✓

Answer: (d) Oganesson

Reasoning: Oganesson (element 118) has highest atomic number. Synthetic element, heaviest in periodic table, officially named in 2016.

QUESTION 37 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The first Prime Minister of India was:

प्रश्न: भारत के पहले प्रधानमंत्री थे:

Options:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel / सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru / जवाहरलाल नेहरू ✓
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad / डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद
(d) Abul Kalam Azad / अबुल कलाम आजाद

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Reasoning: Jawaharlal Nehru first PM of Independent India (15 Aug 1947 – 27 May 1964). Architect of modern India, vision of scientific temperament.

QUESTION 38 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Summer Olympics 2020 were held in:

प्रश्न: ग्रीष्मकालीन ओलंपिक 2020 आयोजित किए गए थे:

Options:
(a) Seoul / सियोल
(b) Beijing / बीजिंग
(c) Tokyo / टोक्यो ✓
(d) Rio de Janeiro / रियो डी जनेरियो

Answer: (c) Tokyo

Reasoning: Summer Olympics 2020 held in Tokyo (2021 due to COVID). Second time Tokyo hosted after 1964. Showcased Japanese culture and technology.

QUESTION 39 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which country has the maximum nuclear weapons?

प्रश्न: किस देश के पास अधिकतम परमाणु हथियार हैं?

Options:
(a) United States / संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका
(b) Russia / रूस
(c) China / चीन
(d) France / फ्रांस

Answer: (a) United States

Reasoning: USA has ~5,800 nuclear weapons. Russia second with ~6,400 warheads but lower deployed count. Total represents ~90% world’s nuclear arsenal.

QUESTION 40 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in:

प्रश्न: मोंटेगु-चेम्सफोर्ड सुधार का परिचय दिया गया था:

Options:
(a) 1917 / 1917
(b) 1918 / 1918 ✓
(c) 1919 / 1919
(d) 1920 / 1920

Answer: (b) 1918

Reasoning: Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms introduced 1918 (Government of India Act 1919). Increased Indian participation in administration, dyarchy system.

QUESTION 41 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: Which is the capital of France?

प्रश्न: फ्रांस की राजधानी है:

Options:
(a) Paris / पेरिस ✓
(b) Lyon / लिओन
(c) Marseille / मार्सिले
(d) Toulouse / टूलूज़

Answer: (a) Paris

Reasoning: Paris capital of France. Located on Seine River, major cultural/political hub. Known as “City of Light,” UNESCO World Heritage Site.

QUESTION 42 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The term “Ecosystem” was coined by:

प्रश्न: “इकोसिस्टम” शब्द का प्रयोग किया गया था:

Options:
(a) Charles Darwin / चार्ल्स डार्विन
(b) Arthur Tansley / आर्थर टैनस्ले ✓
(c) Ernst Haeckel / एर्नस्ट हेकेल
(d) Eugene Odum / यूजीन ओडम

Answer: (b) Arthur Tansley

Reasoning: Arthur Tansley, British botanist, coined term “Ecosystem” in 1935. Described unit of nature composed of organisms and physical environment.

QUESTION 43 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper 2022)

Question: The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched in:

प्रश्न: स्वच्छ भारत मिशन का शुभारंभ किया गया था:

Options:
(a) 2012 / 2012
(b) 2013 / 2013
(c) 2014 / 2014 ✓
(d) 2015 / 2015

Answer: (c) 2014

Reasoning: Swachh Bharat Mission launched 2 October 2014 by PM Modi. Nationwide sanitation campaign aiming cleanliness and ending open defecation.

QUESTION 44 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: Which is the hardest substance known to science?

प्रश्न: विज्ञान के लिए ज्ञात सबसे कठोर पदार्थ है:

Options:
(a) Steel / इस्पात
(b) Titanium / टाइटेनियम
(c) Diamond / हीरा ✓
(d) Graphite / ग्रेफाइट

Answer: (c) Diamond

Reasoning: Diamond hardest natural substance (Mohs 10). Carbon atoms bonded in tetrahedral structure. Used in cutting, grinding, jewelry.

QUESTION 45 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: The Indian Constitution was adopted after how many years of drafting?

प्रश्न: भारतीय संविधान को मसौदा तैयारी के बाद कितने वर्षों के बाद अपनाया गया था?

Options:
(a) 2 years / 2 वर्ष
(b) 2.5 years / 2.5 वर्ष
(c) 2 years 11 months / 2 वर्ष 11 महीने ✓
(d) 3 years / 3 वर्ष

Answer: (c) 2 years 11 months

Reasoning: Drafting Committee started 26 November 1947, adopted 26 November 1949. Nearly 3 years of deliberation by Constituent Assembly members.

QUESTION 46 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: Which sport is known as “Game of Kings”?

प्रश्न: कौन सा खेल “राजाओं का खेल” के नाम से जाना जाता है?

Options:
(a) Tennis / टेनिस
(b) Golf / गोल्फ
(c) Polo / पोलो ✓
(d) Cricket / क्रिकेट

Answer: (c) Polo

Reasoning: Polo called “Game of Kings” – sport of nobility and royalty. Played on horseback with mallets and ball. Originated in Central Asia.

QUESTION 47 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: The United Nations was established in:

प्रश्न: संयुक्त राष्ट्र की स्थापना की गई थी:

Options:
(a) 1943 / 1943
(b) 1944 / 1944
(c) 1945 / 1945 ✓
(d) 1946 / 1946

Answer: (c) 1945

Reasoning: United Nations established 24 October 1945. Founded after WWII to maintain international peace. Headquarters in New York.

QUESTION 48 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: Which is the fastest land animal in the world?

प्रश्न: विश्व का सबसे तेज़ भूमि जानवर है:

Options:
(a) Lion / शेर
(b) Gazelle / ग़ज़ाल
(c) Cheetah / चीता ✓
(d) Greyhound / ग्रेहाउंड

Answer: (c) Cheetah

Reasoning: Cheetah fastest land animal, speeds ~120 km/h. Non-retractable claws act like running shoes. Found in Africa and Asia.

QUESTION 49 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: The “Poona Pact” was signed between:

प्रश्न: “पूना समझौता” पर हस्ताक्षर किए गए थे:

Options:
(a) Nehru and Jinnah / नेहरू और जिन्ना
(b) Gandhi and Ambedkar / गांधी और अंबेडकर ✓
(c) Patel and Mountbatten / पटेल और माउंटबेटन
(d) Jinnah and Mountbatten / जिन्ना और माउंटबेटन

Answer: (b) Gandhi and Ambedkar

Reasoning: Poona Pact signed 24 September 1932 between Gandhi and Dr. Ambedkar. Addressed issues of representation for Scheduled Castes in elections.

QUESTION 50 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (UP APO Previous Year Paper)

Question: Which is the largest state by area in India?

प्रश्न: भारत में क्षेत्र के हिसाब से सबसे बड़ा राज्य है:

Options:
(a) Madhya Pradesh / मध्य प्रदेश
(b) Maharashtra / महाराष्ट्र
(c) Rajasthan / राजस्थान ✓
(d) Uttar Pradesh / उत्तर प्रदेश

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Reasoning: Rajasthan largest state by area (~342,239 sq km). Known as “Land of Kings,” Thar Desert covers most of state. Capital: Jaipur.

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