AIBE 21 (2026) Official Question Paper With Complete AIBE answer key 2026 – All 100 Questions With Detailed Solutions

Welcome to the complete AIBE 21 ANSWER KEY. Below, you will find a simplified, question-wise solution for the exam, complete with the correct options and the legal reasoning or statutory provisions supporting each answer to help you verify your responses.

Question 1 of AIBE answer key 2026:

The term “Public Interest Litigation (PIL)” was first used by : Options: (A) Prof. Abram Chayes (B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati (C) Prof. Upendra Baxi (D) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

Answer: (A) Prof. Abram Chayes

Reasoning: While Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer pioneered PILs in the Indian judicial system, the term “Public Interest Litigation” itself was first coined globally by American legal scholar Professor Abram Chayes.

Question 2 of AIBE answer key 2026:

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I: If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II: If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct? Options: (A) Both Conclusions I and II follow (B) Only Conclusion I follows (C) Only Conclusion II follows (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (C) Only Conclusion II follows

Reasoning: Under Section 5(2) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, unless a specific date is mentioned in the notification, the revised minimum wages come into force on the expiry of three months from the date of the notification’s issue. Conclusion I does not reflect the default statutory fallback as accurately as Conclusion II in the context of the act’s specific language.

Question 3 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which of the following is included in the Central Government’s power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? Options: (A) Carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution (B) Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects (C) Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution (D) Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution

Answer: (D) Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution

Reasoning: Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 explicitly grants the Central Government the power to plan and execute a nationwide program for preventing, controlling, and abating environmental pollution.

Question 4 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments: I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Options: (A) I only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) I, II and III

Answer: (B) I and II

Reasoning: Statement I is correct (Kesavananda Bharati case established that constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review against the basic structure). Statement II is correct (I.R. Coelho case established that Ninth Schedule laws added after April 24, 1973, can be reviewed). Statement III is incorrect; Parliament’s amending power is limited by the Basic Structure Doctrine.

Question 5 of AIBE answer key 2026:

What do you mean by ‘onus probandi’? Options: (A) ‘Burden of proof’ which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence. (B) “The fact to be proved” or the “ultimate fact” that needs to be established in a legal case, such as the core elements of a crime or a cause of action. (C) The prosecution in a criminal case must prove beyond a reasonable doubt, not only a criminal act, but also a certain level of a guilty mind (mens rea), specified in the criminal statute. (D) Actual evidence, documents, or witnesses presented to substantiate that claim.

Answer: (A) ‘Burden of proof’ which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence.

Reasoning: “Onus probandi” is a Latin legal maxim that directly translates to the “burden of proof,” referring to the obligation of a party to prove its allegations during a trial.

Question 6 of AIBE answer key 2026:

According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows Options: (A) That decree has not yet been passed. (B) Sufficient cause for not making the application within time. (C) Error apparent on the face of record. (D) That the defendant had knowledge of death.

Answer: (B) Sufficient cause for not making the application within time.

Reasoning: Under Order 22 Rule 9 of the CPC, a court can set aside the abatement or dismissal of a suit if it is proved that the party was prevented by any “sufficient cause” from continuing the suit or making the application in time.

Question 7 of AIBE answer key 2026:

According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall: Options: (A) Treat the claimant’s allegations as admitted. (B) Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant’s case as uncontroverted. (C) Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission. (D) Terminate the proceedings.

Answer: (C) Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission.

Reasoning: Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act clearly states that if the respondent fails to communicate their statement of defence, the arbitral tribunal shall continue the proceedings without treating that failure in itself as an admission of the allegations by the claimant.

Question 8 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded? Options: (A) For a fixed term not exceeding ten years (B) For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff (C) For a period determined solely by the Registrar (D) For a maximum of five years only

Answer: (B) For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff

Reasoning: Section 40 of the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, empowers the court to order permanent alimony and maintenance to be paid either in a gross sum or in periodic payments for a term not exceeding the life of the applicant/plaintiff.

Question 9 of AIBE answer key 2026:

The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights? Options: (A) Right to speedy trial (B) Right to clean and healthy environment (C) Right to emergency medical care (D) Right to life and personal liberty

Answer: (C) Right to emergency medical care

Reasoning: Pt. Parmanand Katara v. Union of India is a landmark Supreme Court judgment that established the right to emergency medical care. The Court ruled that every doctor has a professional obligation to extend medical services to protect life, without waiting for legal formalities in medico-legal cases.

Question 10 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872? Options: (A) Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1 landmark judgment stands as the latest interpretation of the relevant provisions, offering a consistent approach in line with the legislative intent. (B) The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act”), is a condition precedent to the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence. (C) In P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer, the court held that Section 65B is a “complete code” for electronic evidence. (D) In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, reported in AIR 2005 SC 3820, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had held that courts could admit electronic records such as printouts and compact discs (CDs) as prima facie evidence without authentication.

Answer: (D) In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu…

Reasoning: While the statement regarding Navjot Sandhu accurately reflects what was held in that specific past case, the legal position is no longer true/valid today. P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer overruled Navjot Sandhu specifically on the point of admitting electronic evidence without a 65B certificate. Because the question asks what is “not true with respect to Section 65B” in its current operational understanding, the precedent permitting admission without authentication is the false proposition of law today.

Question 11 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true? Options: (A) Such interested persons may file objections within 6 months of the notice having been issued. (B) All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector. (C) A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all the persons interested. (D) The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website.

Answer: (B) All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector.

Reasoning: Under land acquisition laws (like the RFCTLARR Act, 2013), interested persons do not have to appear personally. They can appear either in person or through an authorized agent or legal practitioner to register their claims or objections.

Question 12 of AIBE answer key 2026:

In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment-debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim : Options: (A) Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings. (B) Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit. (C) Shall be adjudicated by the executing court. (D) Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree.

Answer: (C) Shall be adjudicated by the executing court.

Reasoning: Under Order 21 Rule 97 to Rule 101 of the CPC, all questions arising between the parties to a proceeding or their representatives, or between a decree-holder and a third party asserting independent title, must be adjudicated by the Executing Court itself, and not by a separate suit.

Question 13 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957: Statement I: In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II: For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public. Options: (A) Both Statements I and II are true (B) Both Statements I and II are false (C) Only Statement II is true (D) Only Statement I is true

Answer: (A) Both Statements I and II are true

Reasoning: Section 24 of the Copyright Act, 1957 clearly stipulates that for posthumous works, the copyright subsists for 60 years following the year of first publication. The definition of publication involves making the work available to the public.

Question 14 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry? Options: (A) Not less than ten years (B) Not less than three years (C) Not less than seven years (D) Not less than five years

Answer: (D) Not less than five years

Reasoning: Section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 explicitly lays down that the penalty for giving or taking dowry shall be imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years, along with a fine.

Question 15 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India? Options: (A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241 (B) PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235 (C) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1996) 6 SCC 756 (D) Glaxo Laboratories v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, Meerut, (1984) 1 SCC 1

Answer: (B) PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235

Reasoning: Also known as the Asiad Workers Case, PUDR v. Union of India significantly expanded the scope of Article 23 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) by ruling that paying workers less than the minimum wage amounts to “forced labour.”

Question 16 of AIBE answer key 2026:

As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may: Options: (A) Return the plaint for fresh presentation. (B) Dismiss the suit. (C) Stay the proceedings until service is effected. (D) Proceed to decide the suit on merits.

Answer: (B) Dismiss the suit.

Reasoning: Under Order 9 Rule 2 of the CPC, if the summons has not been served upon the defendant because of the plaintiff’s failure to pay the court fee or postal charges, the court may make an order dismissing the suit.

Question 17 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in: Options: (A) The Supreme Court of India (B) The Parliament (C) The State Legislatures (D) The President of India

Answer: (B) The Parliament

Reasoning: Article 248 of the Constitution of India clearly vests all residuary legislative powers (power to make laws on matters not in the State or Concurrent Lists) exclusively in the Parliament.

Question 18 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law. Statement II: Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of the following options is correct? Options: (A) Only Statement II is true (B) Both Statements I and II are false (C) Both Statements I and II are true (D) Only Statement I is true

Answer: (A) Only Statement II is true

Reasoning: Under the Juvenile Justice Act and evidentiary precedents, documentary evidence like a school leaving certificate or municipal birth certificate takes legal precedence over medical opinions like an ossification test, making Statement II correct. An ossification test is not treated as the absolute “final” proof if statutory documents are available, making Statement I false.

Question 19 of AIBE answer key 2026:

In Roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as : Options: (A) Jus Civile (B) Lex Regia (C) Jus Naturale (D) Jus Gentium

Answer: (C) Jus Naturale Reasoning: In Roman law, Jus Naturale represents natural law—universal, immutable principles of justice, fairness, and reason that govern all human beings, which closely mirrors the modern concept of the Rule of Law.

Question 20 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Assertion (A): The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Reason (R): The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State. Options: (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (B) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Reasoning: India follows a flexible separation of powers. The existence of “checks and balances” (like judicial review or the executive’s ordinance-making power) is precisely the reason why the separation of powers is not rigid.

Question 21 of AIBE answer key 2026:

In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that “the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant’s freedom”? Options: (A) Attorney General for Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (B) Bugdaycay v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (C) Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (D) Attorney General for New South Wales v. Trethowan

Answer: (C) Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284 Reasoning: This is a direct historical quote from Lord Wright in the landmark English case Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs, underscoring the swift and protective nature of the Habeas Corpus writ.

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Question 22 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law. II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court. III. Withdrawal of a suit without permission of the court to institute a fresh suit bars a subsequent suit on the same cause of action. IV. The court must grant permission whenever such request is made. Options: (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Answer: (B) I, II and III Reasoning: Under Order 23 Rule 1 of the CPC, a plaintiff can withdraw a suit, but filing a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires explicit court permission. Statement IV is incorrect because granting permission is at the court’s discretion, not a mandatory “must”.

Question 23 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts? Options: (A) A boy kicked another… unknown microbial condition that was irritated, and resulted in him entirely losing the use of his leg. (B) Nervous shock cases are also consistent with this principle… (C) A man had a heart attack and died after being bruised in the chest… (D) ‘A’ underwent an appendectomy… it was later discovered that a needle had been left inside her abdomen…

Answer: (D) ‘A’ underwent an appendectomy… it was later discovered that a needle had been left inside her abdomen… Reasoning: The “eggshell skull rule” (take your victim as you find them) applies to pre-existing vulnerabilities of the victim (Options A, B, C). Leaving a needle in a patient’s abdomen is an act of pure medical negligence (res ipsa loquitur), not an aggravation of a pre-existing condition.

Question 24 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer-in-charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within : Options: (A) 14 days (B) 7 days (C) 30 days (D) 24 hours

Answer: (A) 14 days Reasoning: Under the new BNSS 2023 provisions (which replace the CrPC), the police officer is required to inform the informant within a strict period of 14 days if they decide not to proceed with an investigation.

Question 25 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a ‘Bailable Offence’? Options: (A) Section 2(h) (B) Section 2(x) (C) Section 2(c) (D) Section 2(a)

Answer: (D) Section 2(a) Reasoning: Section 2(a) of the CrPC, 1973 defines both “bailable offence” (an offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule) and “non-bailable offence”.

Question 26 of AIBE answer key 2026:

A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with conditions for maintaining a public library… However, if it ceases to be used for this purpose, it reverts to heirs. Income shall accumulate for 50 years. Which statement is most accurate? Options: (A) The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty. (B) The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity. (C) The transfer is valid in entirety, including the accumulation clause, because transfers for public purposes are fully exempt from all perpetuity-related restrictions. (D) The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public benefit, but the accumulation clause is void to the extent it exceeds statutory limits.

Answer: (C) The transfer is valid in entirety… Reasoning: Under Section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the restrictions regarding perpetuity (Section 14) and direction for accumulation (Section 17) do not apply when property is transferred for the benefit of the public (such as a public library).

Question 27 of AIBE answer key 2026:

A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month’s imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the CrPC, 1973, which of the following is true? Options: (A) The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session. (B) An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed. (C) The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court. (D) No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance.

Answer: (D) No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance. Reasoning: Under Section 376(c) of the CrPC, there shall be no appeal by a convicted person in petty cases, which explicitly includes a scenario where a Magistrate of the first or second class passes a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.

Question 28 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement to constitute the offence of ‘Abduction’? Options: (A) Compelling or inducing a person to move from one place to another (B) The classification of the act as a “continuing offence” (C) The employment of physical force or the use of deceitful means (D) The person abducted must be a minor

Answer: (D) The person abducted must be a minor Reasoning: Under Section 362 of the IPC, abduction involves compelling or deceitfully inducing any person (regardless of age) to go from any place. “Kidnapping” strictly requires the victim to be a minor, but “Abduction” does not.

Question 29 of AIBE answer key 2026:

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case ? Options: (A) National Company Law Tribunal (B) Arbitral Tribunal (C) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (D) National Green Tribunal

Answer: (B) Arbitral Tribunal Reasoning: Just like the Indian Evidence Act of 1872, Section 1 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 expressly states that its strict rules of evidence do not apply to proceedings before an Arbitrator.

Question 30 of AIBE answer key 2026:

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe ? Options: (A) Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded (B) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days) (C) Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order (D) Within a strict period of 15 days

Answer: (B) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days) Reasoning: BNSS specifically introduces timebound proceedings. Section 392 of the BNSS mandates that a judgment must be pronounced within 30 days of completing arguments, which can be extended to 45 days for specific recorded reasons.

Question 31 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves? Options: (A) Section 125 (B) Section 320 (C) Section 144 (D) Section 107

Answer: (A) Section 125 Reasoning: Section 125 of the CrPC is the landmark provision that provides a quick, summary remedy to ensure the maintenance of wives, legitimate/illegitimate children, and parents who cannot maintain themselves.

Question 32 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief: Options: (A) Only through review before the same court. (B) Only by filing a separate suit. (C) By applying for setting aside the ex-parte decree. (D) Only through an appeal against decree.

Answer: (C) By applying for setting aside the ex-parte decree. Reasoning: Under Order 9 Rule 13 of the CPC, any defendant against whom an ex-parte decree is passed can apply to the court that passed it to set it aside by proving that the summons was not duly served.

Question 33 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is instituted against a person who is subsequently found to have been wrongly impleaded as a defendant, the court may: Options: (A) Dismiss the suit as not maintainable. (B) Permit substitution or addition of the proper defendant. (C) Direct the plaintiff to institute a fresh suit. (D) Return the plaint on the ground of mis-joinder of parties.

Answer: (B) Permit substitution or addition of the proper defendant. Reasoning: Order 1 Rule 10(2) of the CPC empowers the court, at any stage of the proceedings, to strike out wrongly joined parties and to add/substitute any person who ought to have been joined as a necessary or proper party.

Question 34 of AIBE answer key 2026: Read the following statements and choose the correct option in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. Statement I: The arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction. Statement II: A plea that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction shall be raised not later than the submission of the statement of defence… Options: (A) Only Statement I is true (B) Both Statements I and II are true (C) Only Statement II is true (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true

Answer: (B) Both Statements I and II are true Reasoning: Under Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, the principle of Kompetenz-Kompetenz applies (Statement I), and a jurisdictional plea must be raised no later than the statement of defence (Statement II).

Question 35 of AIBE answer key 2026:

According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to : Options: (A) Jurisdiction of the civil court alone. (B) Place where the contract was executed. (C) Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties. (D) Location of subject matter of dispute.

Answer: (C) Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties. Reasoning: Section 20(2) of the Arbitration Act states that if parties fail to agree on a venue, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it “having regard to the circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties.”

Question 36 of AIBE answer key 2026:

What is the year did the mandatory pre-fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988? Options: (A) 2023 (B) 2018 (C) 2024 (D) 2019

Answer: (D) 2019 Reasoning: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) mandated the pre-fitment of HSRPs on all new motor vehicles sold on or after April 1, 2019.

Question 37 of AIBE answer key 2026:

According to Section 10(37), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, compensation is received by an individual on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land which had been used for agricultural purposes by him prior to acquisition. What is the correct legal position? Options: (A) It is always taxable under the Act. (B) It is exempt, subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions. (C) It is taxable only if it exceeds a prescribed limit. (D) It is taxable as business income.

Answer: (B) It is exempt, subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions. Reasoning: Section 10(37) of the IT Act exempts capital gains arising from the compulsory acquisition of urban agricultural land, provided it was used for agricultural purposes for at least two years prior to the acquisition.

Question 38 of AIBE answer key 2026: “The rules of natural justice were not confined to the narrow precincts of the prevailing definition of quasi-judicial functions.” This principle was laid down in which case ? Options: (A) Conway v. Rimmer (B) Ridge v. Baldwin (C) Maradana Mosque Trustees v. Mahmud (D) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India

Answer: (D) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AIR 1970 SC 150 Reasoning: The landmark Supreme Court case A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India blurred the dividing line between administrative and quasi-judicial functions, holding that principles of natural justice must apply even to purely administrative actions that affect individuals’ rights.

Question 39 of AIBE answer key 2026:

Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court… The opinion rendered by the Court in such a reference is generally regarded as: Options: (A) Enforceable through contempt jurisdiction (B) A binding precedent under Article 141 (C) Advisory in nature and not strictly binding (D) Equivalent to a decree of the Court

Answer: (C) Advisory in nature and not strictly binding Reasoning: Article 143 provides for the “Advisory Jurisdiction” of the Supreme Court. The opinions given by the Court under this article are highly respected but are technically advisory and not binding precedents on the President or lower courts in the strict sense.

Question 40 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Options: (A) January 1, 2024 (B) July 1, 2024 (C) August 15, 2023 (D) December 25, 2023

Answer: (B) July 1, 2024

Reasoning: The Ministry of Home Affairs officially notified that the three new criminal laws—the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)—would all come into force on July 1, 2024.

Question 41 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of ‘Defamation’? Options: (A) Rigorous imprisonment for 5 years (B) Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service (C) Only an apology in open court (D) Only a fine

Answer: (B) Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service

Reasoning: Under Section 356(2) of the new BNS, 2023, the punishment for defamation explicitly includes simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both, or with “community service” as a newly introduced penal measure.

Question 42 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

“Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition was given by: Options: (A) H.W.R. Wade (B) A.V. Dicey (C) K.C. Davis (D) Ivor Jennings

Answer: (C) K.C. Davis

Reasoning: This is the standard definition of Administrative Law famously formulated by the renowned American legal scholar Kenneth Culp Davis (K.C. Davis).

Question 43 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ? Options: (A) Solitary confinement (B) Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole (C) Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property (D) Community Service

Answer: (D) Community Service

Reasoning: Section 4 of the BNS, 2023 marks a significant shift in Indian penal law by officially incorporating “Community Service” as one of the prescribed forms of punishment for certain minor offences.

Question 44 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)… Assertion (A): An ex parte decree may be set aside if the defendant satisfies the court that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing. Reason (R): Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court must be satisfied that the summons was not duly served or that the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.

Options: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) cite_start is false, but (R) is true.

(D) cite_start is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Reasoning: Order IX Rule 13 of the CPC specifically provides the legal grounds (Reason R) to set aside an ex parte decree, making the assertion legally sound and the reason its direct statutory backing.

Question 45 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, stipulates that a police officer must produce a person arrested without a warrant before a Magistrate within a maximum period of 24 hours ? Options: (A) Section 51 (B) Section 57 (C) Section 41 (D) Section 164

Answer: (B) Section 57

Reasoning: Section 57 of the CrPC explicitly states that no police officer shall detain a person arrested without a warrant in custody for a longer period than is reasonable, and such period shall not exceed twenty-four hours (exclusive of the time necessary for the journey).

Question 46 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform… Yash Aditya Music Company files a suit seeking an injunction restraining Ajeet Singh from performing for BR Chopra & Company. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963? Options: (A) The court must compel Ajeet Singh to sing for Yash Aditya Music Company. (B) Only damages can be granted. (C) The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant. (D) The injunction must be refused because contracts of personal service cannot be enforced.

Answer: (C) The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant.

Reasoning: Under Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, even though a contract of personal service cannot be specifically enforced (meaning the court cannot force him to sing), the court can grant an injunction to perform the negative agreement (restraining him from singing for the rival company).

Question 47 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India forms the primary legislative basis for the Parliament enacting the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981? Options: (A) Article 253 (B) Article 252 (C) Article 233 (D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Article 253

Reasoning: The Air Act, 1981 was passed to implement the decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in 1972. Parliament’s power to legislate for giving effect to international agreements is found in Article 253.

Question 48 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in case of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation? Options: (A) When the affected party chooses to initiate criminal proceedings (B) When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised access (C) When the damage to computer resources exceeds a prescribed monetary limit (D) When access to a computer system is without permission, irrespective of intent

Answer: (B) When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised access

Reasoning: Under the IT Act, unauthorized access generally falls under civil liability (Section 43). However, when the same act is coupled with a “dishonest or fraudulent” intention, it escalates to a criminal offence (Section 66).

Question 49 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify the authenticity of electronic evidence ? Options: (A) Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, with the certificate adhering to the format prescribed in the Adhiniyam’s Schedule. (B) The form specified in the Schedule requires that electronic evidence be accompanied by a ‘hash value’. (C) Qualification of an expert. (D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert…

Reasoning: Section 63(4)(c) of the BSA 2023 requires the certificate to be signed by a person in charge of the device and an expert (if any), but does not strictly mandate that it must always be signed by both in every single scenario if an expert is not involved.

Question 50 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Assertion (A): The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust… The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an ‘industry’… Reason (R) : The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration. Options: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (C) cite_start is false, but (R) is true. (D) cite_start is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Reasoning: Based on the landmark Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa case, if a charitable trust engages in systematic commercial or economic activities with employer-employee relationships, it falls within the definition of an ‘industry’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Question 51 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may: Options: (A) Strike out such pleadings at any stage of proceedings. (B) Direct amendment only after trial begins. (C) Ignore such pleadings without passing any order. (D) Reject the plaint in entirety.

Answer: (A) Strike out such pleadings at any stage of proceedings.

Reasoning: Under Order 6 Rule 16 of the CPC, the court has the power at any stage of the proceedings to order the striking out or amending of any matter in a pleading which may be unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous, or vexatious, or which may tend to prejudice, embarrass or delay the fair trial.

Question 52 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

During an India – Country X war, India declares X an enemy. A (an Indian citizen) enters into a contract to supply medicines to B (a citizen of X) via a neutral intermediary and a bank. Which of the following is most accurate under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? Options: (A) Valid-goods are humanitarian and payment is via a neutral country. (B) Valid unless the Government expressly cancels. (C) Voidable only the Government of India can cancel. (D) Void-trading with an enemy in war is prohibited and is against public policy.

Answer: (D) Void-trading with an enemy in war is prohibited and is against public policy.

Reasoning: Contracts with an alien enemy during wartime are considered contrary to public policy and are legally void ab initio under the Indian Contract Act, regardless of intermediaries.

Question 53 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with “fast track merger”. What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval? Options: (A) 60-90 Days, NCLT (B) 1 Year, Regional Director (C) 45-90 Days, NCLAT (D) 60-90 Days, Regional Director

Answer: (D) 60-90 Days, Regional Director

Reasoning: Under Section 233 (Fast Track Mergers) of the Companies Act, 2013, the power of approval rests with the Central Government (delegated to the Regional Director), effectively bypassing the longer NCLT process, typically resolving within 60-90 days.

Question 54 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for 50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at 60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming 10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963? Options: (A) A can recover only if the court first declares B guilty of breach. (B) A must sue only for damages and not substituted performance. (C) A can recover 10 lakh because B breached the contract. (D) A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice.

Answer: (D) A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice.

Reasoning: Under Section 20(1) of the Specific Relief Act (as amended in 2018), a party claiming substituted performance must give a mandatory written notice of not less than 30 days to the breaching party calling upon them to perform, before getting it performed by a third party. Since A “immediately” hired C, no such notice was given.

Question 55 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

A mandatory PUC Certificate is provided under which Section and Rule ? Options: (A) Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 115 and 116 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 (B) Section 177(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 117 and 118… (C) Section 160(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 109 and 110… (D) Section 120(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 122 and 123…

Answer: (A) Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 115 and 116 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989

Reasoning: Driving a vehicle without a valid Pollution Under Control (PUC) certificate is a violation of environmental standards governed by Rule 115/116 of CMVR and punishable under Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Question 56 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene ? Options: (A) When both parties request supervision of proceedings. (B) When procedural irregularity is alleged without specific provision under the Act. (C) When the court considers the award unjust on facts. (D) When the Act expressly permits such intervention.

Answer: (D) When the Act expressly permits such intervention.

Reasoning: Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 clearly establishes a non-intervention principle, stating that no judicial authority shall intervene in matters governed by Part I of the Act except where so provided specifically within the Act itself.

Question 57 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following is not a document as per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ? Options: (A) Private papers (B) Caricature (C) Map (D) Inscription

Answer: (A) Private papers Reasoning: Under the definition of “Document” in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (and formerly Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act), maps, plans, inscriptions, and caricatures are all explicitly provided as statutory illustrations of what constitutes a document. “Private papers” are not explicitly classified as documents by themselves unless they contain matters expressed or described upon a substance by letters/figures/marks intended to be used as evidence.

Question 58 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. As per the applicable law, the following steps are proposed : (i) Preliminary notification (ii) Social Impact Assessment (SIA) (iii) Gram Sabha consultation/consent (iv) Final notification. Which of the following statements is correct? Options: (A) Final notification can be issued without Gram Sabha, with owner consent only. (B) Final notification can come before SIA but after preliminary notification. (C) SIA and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory for ST land; acquisition can’t proceed without consent. (D) Gram Sabha is advisory only consent is not needed for public projects.

Answer: (C) SIA and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory for ST land; acquisition can’t proceed without consent. Reasoning: Under Section 41 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR), when acquiring land in Scheduled Areas, the prior consent of the concerned Gram Sabha or the Panchayats is absolutely mandatory, as is the Social Impact Assessment (SIA).

Question 59 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, ‘Forfeiture of Property’ is listed as a punishment. In which specific case is this most commonly applied ? Options: (A) Organized Crime (Section 111) (B) Offences involving simple hurt or minor physical injury (C) Cases of rash or negligent driving (D) Instances of minor or petty theft

Answer: (A) Organized Crime (Section 111) Reasoning: The BNS, 2023 introduced stringent provisions to tackle organized crime. Section 111 of the BNS explicitly includes the attachment and forfeiture of property derived from or used in the commission of organized crime.

Question 60 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for ‘Plea Bargaining’ must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges? Options: (A) 7 days (B) 15 days (C) 30 days (D) 60 days

Answer: (C) 30 days Reasoning: Under the new procedural framework of the BNSS, 2023 (specifically Section 290), a strict timeline has been introduced. An accused who wishes to file an application for plea bargaining must do so within a period of thirty days from the date of framing of the charge.

Question 61 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment ? Options: (A) Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, 1984 AIR 1622 (B) Vasa Chandrasekhar Rao v. Ponna Satyanarayana & Anr., 2000 AIR SC 2138 (C) Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P., 1981 SCC (2) 166 (D) Dr. Sunil Clifford Daniel v. State of Punjab (2012) 11 SCC 205

Answer: (A) Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, 1984 AIR 1622 Reasoning: In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court laid down the “Panchsheel” or the five golden principles of circumstantial evidence, ruling that the chain of evidence must be so complete as to leave no reasonable ground for a conclusion consistent with the innocence of the accused.

Question 62 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following does not fall under the framework of presumption under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ? Options: (A) Conclusive proof (B) Unassailable proof (C) May be (D) Shall presume

Answer: (B) Unassailable proof Reasoning: The Indian evidentiary framework (both the old Evidence Act and the new BSA 2023) recognizes three degrees of presumptions: “May presume”, “Shall presume”, and “Conclusive proof”. The term “Unassailable proof” does not exist in the statutory framework.

Question 63 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)… Assertion (A): Income-tax is levied on the total income of a person for the previous year. Reason (R): Income earned during the previous year is assessed to tax in the immediately succeeding assessment year under the Income-tax Act, 1961. Options: (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Reasoning: The fundamental rule of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is that tax is levied on the income earned during the “Previous Year”, and this levy occurs and is calculated in the corresponding “Assessment Year” which immediately follows it.

Question 64 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, between which hours must a marriage generally be solemnized? Options: (A) Between seven in the morning and eight in the evening (B) Between five in the morning and six in the evening (C) Between six in the morning and seven in the evening (D) Between six in the morning and nine in the evening

Answer: (C) Between six in the morning and seven in the evening Reasoning: Section 10 of the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 explicitly mandates that every marriage under this Act shall be solemnized between the hours of six in the morning and seven in the evening, with certain exceptions for specially authorized clergy.

Question 65 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

A, an 18-year-old adult of sound mind, executes a written instrument in favour of B stating, “I promise to pay B ₹ 75,000 on 1st April next year.” A is fully competent… Examine the correct legal position. Options: (A) The promissory note is valid; A is liable to pay B. (B) The promissory note is voidable at A’s option since A is only 18 years of age. (C) The promissory note is valid only if a third party signs as witness. (D) The promissory note is void because it does not mention the consideration.

Answer: (A) The promissory note is valid; A is liable to pay B. Reasoning: Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an 18-year-old is an adult competent to contract. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a promissory note containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money is valid, and consideration is legally presumed under Section 118(a).

Question 66 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a ‘Terrorist Act’ been formally integrated into India’s general penal legislation for the first time? Options: (A) Section 113 (B) Section 152 (C) Section 109 (D) Section 121

Answer: (A) Section 113 Reasoning: In a major shift from previous general penal laws (IPC), the BNS 2023 explicitly defines and punishes a “terrorist act” under Section 113, incorporating elements previously exclusive to special statutes like UAPA.

Question 67 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Directions: The following question consists of two statements… Assertion (A): The right to privacy has been judicially recognised as an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Reason (R): Privacy is expressly enumerated as a separate Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution of India. Options: (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Reasoning: The right to privacy was read into Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) by the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy judgment. However, privacy is not “expressly enumerated” (written explicitly as a distinct article) in Part III of the Constitution; it is an implied/judicially interpreted right.

Question 68 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under constitutional jurisprudence in India, repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the Legislature was described by the Supreme Court as a “fraud on the Constitution” in which decision ? Options: (A) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 564 (B) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1974 SC 2192 (C) Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar, (2017) 3 SCC 1 (D) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579

Answer: (D) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579 Reasoning: In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court struck down the practice of the Bihar government continuously re-promulgating ordinances for years without legislative approval, famously terming it a “fraud on the Constitution”.

Question 69 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client’s money by an advocate, held that : Options: (A) A monetary penalty equal to double the amount misappropriated is the appropriate sanction under the Act. (B) Reprimand is the appropriate punishment for a first-time misappropriation… (C) Suspension from practice for a period of five years is the standard sanction… (D) Misappropriation of a client’s money constitutes one of the gravest forms of professional misconduct and ordinarily warrants removal of the advocate’s name from the State roll.

Answer: (D) Misappropriation of a client’s money constitutes one of the gravest forms of professional misconduct and ordinarily warrants removal of the advocate’s name from the State roll. Reasoning: The Supreme Court in this case ruled that among all types of professional misconduct, misappropriation of a client’s money is the most grievous, and the most appropriate punishment is striking the advocate’s name off the Bar Council rolls.

Question 70 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

According to Section 56(2)(x), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if an individual receives a sum of money, without consideration, from a person other than a relative, and the amount exceeds the prescribed limit. What is the correct legal position? Options: (A) It is taxable under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. (B) It is fully exempt from tax. (C) It is treated as a capital receipt and is not taxable. (D) It is taxable only if received in cash.

Answer: (A) It is taxable under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. Reasoning: Section 56(2)(x) of the IT Act explicitly states that monetary gifts exceeding ₹50,000 received from non-relatives are taxable in the hands of the recipient under the head “Income from Other Sources”.

Question 71 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Constitution of India, Parliament enacts legislation to implement India’s obligations under an international environmental agreement. The subject ordinarily falls within the State List and no resolution under Article 252 has been passed. The source of Parliament’s competence would be : Options: (A) Article 250 (B) Article 253 (C) Article 249 (D) Article 252

Answer: (B) Article 253 Reasoning: Article 253 gives Parliament the exclusive overarching power to make laws for the whole or any part of India to implement any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country, even if the subject matter falls in the State List.

Question 72 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, in which of the following scenarios does the “Right of Private Defence of the Body” extend to the extent of voluntarily causing death to the assailant? Options: (A) An assault committed with the specific intention of kidnapping or abducting a person (B) A case of theft where the value of the stolen property exceeds ₹ 10,000 (C) An act of criminal trespass occurring on open, vacant land (D) A simple assault committed without the use of a weapon

Answer: (A) An assault committed with the specific intention of kidnapping or abducting a person Reasoning: Section 100 of the IPC (and equivalent in BNS) outlines specific situations where the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death. An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting is explicitly listed as one of these grounds.

Question 73 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II… What is the recourse for minority shareholders under law? Conclusion I: The Minority Shareholders can file for class action under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013… Conclusion II: The aggrieved members may proceed individually to protect their rights against acts of oppression or mismanagement under Section 241… Options: (A) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows (B) Only Conclusion I follows (C) Only Conclusion II follows (D) Both Conclusions I and II follow

Answer: (D) Both Conclusions I and II follow Reasoning: Under the Companies Act, 2013, minority shareholders have dual remedies for promoters selling shares below fair market value causing loss. They can initiate a class action suit (Section 245) and they can also file an application for oppression and mismanagement (Section 241).

Question 74 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

The adoption of an Ombudsman-type institution in India was first recommended by which of the following? Options: (A) Santhanam Committee, 1964 (B) Administrative Reforms Commission, 2005 (C) Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966 (D) India Against Corruption Movement, 2011

Answer: (C) Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966 Reasoning: The first Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) headed by Morarji Desai in 1966 formally recommended the establishment of two special authorities—Lokpal and Lokayukta—to redress citizen grievances, modeled on the Scandinavian Ombudsman.

Question 75 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

X takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety… After 3 months, Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y. Subsequently, X defaults on the loan. Which of the following statements correctly describes Y’s liability under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? Options: (A) Y is liable only if the bank sues the principal debtor first, regardless of the modification. (B) Y is not liable at all because the principal debtor defaulted after the contract modification. (C) Y is partially discharged from liability because Bank A’s modification increased the risk to Y without his consent. (D) Y is fully liable for the entire loan because a surety is always liable once the principal debtor defaults.

Answer: (B) Y is not liable at all because the principal debtor defaulted after the contract modification. Reasoning: Section 133 of the Indian Contract Act dictates that any variance made without the surety’s consent, in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor, discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance.

Question 76 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay? Options: (A) The landowner is a consumer as he did not construct himself. (B) The landowner is a consumer unless profit motive is proven. (C) The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture. (D) The landowner is a consumer if defects exist, irrespective of the nature of the transaction.

Answer: (C) The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture. Reasoning: The Supreme Court and National Commission have consistently held that in a Joint Development Agreement (JDA) where there is a sharing of profits or developed property, the relationship is a commercial joint venture, and the landowner does not fall under the definition of a “consumer.”

Question 77 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of ‘Theft’? Options: (A) The movement of movable property out of a person’s possession without their consent (B) The requirement that the property must be removed from a public location exclusively (C) The employment of physical force or criminal violence against a person (D) The unauthorized movement of immovable property without the owner’s consent

Answer: (A) The movement of movable property out of a person’s possession without their consent Reasoning: Under Section 378 of the IPC, the primary ingredients of theft are dishonest intention to take property, the property must be movable, it must be taken out of the possession of another person, and it must be moved without their consent.

Question 78 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public-spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with: Options: (A) The evolution of Public Interest Litigation. (B) Judicial review of administrative action. (C) Enforcement of fundamental rights through individual petitions alone. (D) Expansion of writ jurisdiction under Article 226.

Answer: (A) The evolution of Public Interest Litigation. Reasoning: The relaxation of the strict rule of locus standi (who has the right to bring a lawsuit) is the very foundation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India, permitting citizens to petition the courts on behalf of the marginalized.

Question 79 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Ramesh’s job contract with M/s XYZ bars him from joining any rival software firm in India for three years post-resignation. But after resigning within three years, he joins a competitor. XYZ company filed a suit to enforce the restrictive clause. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the legal position? Options: (A) Void restrains lawful profession after employment ends. (B) Valid Ramesh agreed voluntarily. (C) Valid protects the employer’s business interest. (D) Valid three years is a reasonable period.

Answer: (A) Void restrains lawful profession after employment ends. Reasoning: Under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind is, to that extent, void. Post-employment negative covenants restricting an employee from joining a competitor are generally struck down as void.

Question 80 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette framed by the Bar Council of India, an advocate is prohibited from appearing before any court, tribunal or authority for or against an organisation or institution of which he is a member of its: Options: (A) Advisory Committee (B) Sub-Committee (C) Executive Committee (D) General Body

Answer: (C) Executive Committee Reasoning: Rule 8 of Section I (Duty to the Court) of the BCI Rules clearly stipulates that an advocate shall not appear in or before any court for or against an organization if he is a member of the Executive Committee of that organization.

Question 81 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following is not included in “The Industrial Relations Code, 2020”? Options: (A) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act) (B) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 (C) Trade Unions Act, 1926 (D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Answer: (A) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act) Reasoning: The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 subsumed three specific labour laws: the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. It does not subsume the IDR Act, 1951.

Question 82 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the maximum fine that may be imposed for printing or publishing matter in contravention of provisions relating to in-camera proceedings? Options: (A) Fine up to five thousand rupees (B) Fine up to one thousand rupees (C) Fine up to two thousand rupees (D) Fine up to five hundred rupees

Answer: (B) Fine up to one thousand rupees Reasoning: Section 33(2) of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 states that if any person prints or publishes any matter regarding in-camera proceedings without court permission, they shall be punishable with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees.

Question 83 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: The Bar Council of India… categorically bars an advocate from stipulating for, or receiving, any fee whose quantum is dependent upon the outcome of litigation… Conclusion I: An advocate may lawfully enter into an outcome-linked fee arrangement so long as the client’s written consent is obtained prior to the engagement. Conclusion II : An advocate who violates the prohibition on contingency-based fees may face disciplinary action under the Advocates Act, 1961. Options: (A) Only Conclusion II follows (B) Both Conclusions I and II follow (C) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows (D) Only Conclusion I follows

Answer: (A) Only Conclusion II follows Reasoning: Conclusion I is incorrect because BCI Rule 20 creates an absolute bar on contingency fees; client consent does not validate an illegal professional contract. Conclusion II is correct, as breaching the BCI Rules amounts to professional misconduct under Section 35 of the Advocates Act.

Question 84 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is granted to an inventor in India. Which of the following correctly reflects a limitation on the patentee’s rights under the law? Options: (A) The invention cannot be used by the Government without permission (B) The patent becomes void if used by a government authority (C) The Government may use the invention for its own purposes without the consent of the patentee (D) The patentee loses all rights once the invention is used by the Government

Answer: (C) The Government may use the invention for its own purposes without the consent of the patentee Reasoning: Section 47 of the Patents Act, 1970 expressly subjects the grant of a patent to the condition that the Government may use any patented machine, apparatus, or process for merely its own purposes without infringing upon the patentee’s rights.

Question 85 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term ‘electronic record’ includes which of the following? I. Data stored in digital form II. Image or sound stored or transmitted electronically III. Information generated in microfilm or computer-generated microfiche IV. Information recorded only on paper without electronic processing Options: (A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) I, II, III and IV (D) II, III and IV

Answer: (B) I, II and III Reasoning: Section 2(1)(t) of the IT Act defines an electronic record to include data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or computer-generated microfiche. It inherently excludes purely physical paper records.

Question 86 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

A executes a document in favour of B stating, “I hereby sell my house to B for 5,00,000. If I repay the amount within 3 years, B shall retransfer the property to me; otherwise, the sale shall become absolute.” The condition is included in the same document. A fails to repay within 3 years. B claims absolute ownership. Examine the correct legal position under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Options: (A) It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court. (B) It is a lease with an option to repurchase. (C) The transaction is void for uncertainty. (D) It is an outright sale; B becomes absolute owner automatically.

Answer: (A) It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court. Reasoning: Under Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act, a transaction ostensibly selling property with a condition that it will become absolute upon default of payment, where the condition is embodied in the same document, is strictly construed as a “mortgage by conditional sale,” requiring formal foreclosure proceedings.

Question 87 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the scheme of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where proceedings are pending before a competent civil court, and an application is made seeking transfer of the case from one district to another district within the state, such transfer may be ordered : Options: (A) Only after conclusion of trial. (B) Only by the court in which the suit is pending. (C) By the High Court. (D) Only upon agreement between the parties.

Answer: (C) By the High Court. Reasoning: Under Section 24 of the CPC, the power to transfer suits, appeals, or other proceedings from a court in one district to a court in another district within the same State rests exclusively with the High Court.

Question 88 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, ‘Default Bail’ (or statutory bail) is a right of the accused if the investigation is not completed: Options: (A) Upon the expiry of 120 days specifically for offences against the State. (B) After 60 days or 90 days, contingent upon the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. (C) Immediately following the completion of the initial 15-day police custody. (D) After a fixed period of 30 days for all types of offences.

Answer: (B) After 60 days or 90 days, contingent upon the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. Reasoning: Section 167(2) of the CrPC establishes an indefeasible right to bail if the charge sheet is not filed within 90 days (for offences punishable by death, life imprisonment, or 10+ years imprisonment) or 60 days (for all other offences).

Question 89 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, within how many months from the date of marriage must dowry received before marriage be transferred to the woman? Options: (A) Within five months (B) Within three months (C) Within six months (D) Within seven months

Answer: (B) Within three months Reasoning: Under Section 6(1)(a) of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, if dowry is received by anyone other than the woman, and it was received before the marriage, it must be transferred to the woman within three months after the date of marriage.

Question 90 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, what condition applies for appointing a guardian for a married female minor? Options: (A) The parents must apply jointly for such appointment (B) The husband must be considered unfit by the Court (C) The husband must be declared legally incompetent (D) The husband must consent to such appointment

Answer: (B) The husband must be considered unfit by the Court Reasoning: Under Section 19(a) of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, the court is legally prohibited from appointing a guardian for the person of a minor who is a married female unless the court finds that her husband is unfit to be the guardian of her person.

Question 91 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

As per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what are one-sided agreements ? Options: (A) Unfair trade practices (B) Quasi contracts (C) Unilateral contracts (D) Unconscionable contracts

Answer: (D) Unconscionable contracts Reasoning: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 introduced statutory remedies against “unfair contracts” under Section 2(46). Consumer forums classify these heavily biased, non-negotiable, and one-sided agreements structurally as “unconscionable contracts” because they severely restrict consumer rights.

Question 92 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

An assessee pays a medical insurance premium for himself and his family and claims a deduction while computing total income. What is the correct position under the Income Tax Act, 1961 ? Options: (A) Deduction is allowed subject to prescribed limits and conditions (B) Deduction is allowed only for senior citizens (C) Deduction is not permitted in such cases (D) Deduction is allowed without any monetary limit

Answer: (A) Deduction is allowed subject to prescribed limits and conditions Reasoning: Section 80D of the Income Tax Act, 1961 allows a taxpayer to claim a deduction for health insurance premiums paid for self and family, strictly capped up to prescribed monetary limits (which vary depending on age brackets like senior citizens).

Question 93 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under Section 35B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a party fails to take a step required by the court on the date fixed, the court may: Options: (A) Impose costs as a precondition for allowing further prosecution. (B) Dismiss the suit. (C) Proceed with the suit without imposing any condition. (D) Grant adjournment as a matter of right.

Answer: (A) Impose costs as a precondition for allowing further prosecution. Reasoning: Section 35B of the CPC empowers the court to impose compensatory costs on a party causing delay. The payment of such costs on the date next following the date of the order is treated as a condition precedent to the further prosecution or defence of the suit.

Question 94 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police ? Options: (A) The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio-video electronic recording (B) The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses (C) The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search (D) The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premises

Answer: (A) The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio-video electronic recording Reasoning: As a major procedural safeguard, Section 105 of the BNSS mandates that the process of conducting a search and the seizure of any articles shall be mandatorily recorded through audio-video electronic means.

Question 95 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which situation makes the consent of a wife unnecessary for adoption? Options: (A) She refuses consent due to personal disagreement. (B) She has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion. (C) She is living separately without legal separation. (D) None of the above

Answer: (B) She has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion. Reasoning: Under Section 7 of HAMA, 1956, a male Hindu requires his wife’s consent for adoption. However, this consent is legally rendered unnecessary if she has completely and finally renounced the world, has been declared of unsound mind by a court, or has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Question 96 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of : Options: (A) Article 356 (B) Article 250 (C) Article 249 (D) Article 360

Answer: (B) Article 250 Reasoning: Article 250 of the Constitution specifically empowers the Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency (under Article 352) is in operation.

Question 97 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Which of the following options correctly states the composition of a Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council as prescribed under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961? Options: (A) Five members all co-opted from advocates having not less than ten years’ standing at the Bar. (B) Five members three elected by the Council and two co-opted senior advocates from outside the Council. (C) Three members two elected from the Council’s membership and one co-opted advocate possessing the prescribed qualifications, who is not a member of the Council. (D) Three members all elected by the Council, with the most junior member serving as Chairman.

Answer: (C) Three members two elected from the Council’s membership and one co-opted advocate possessing the prescribed qualifications, who is not a member of the Council. Reasoning: Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act mandates that a Disciplinary Committee must consist of exactly three persons: two persons elected by the Bar Council from amongst its members, and one person co-opted by the Council from amongst advocates who possess the necessary qualifications but are not members of the Council.

Question 98 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut-off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract: Options: (A) Legislative competence of the State (B) Article 14 and the principle of classification (C) Doctrine of eclipse (D) Doctrine of severability

Answer: (B) Article 14 and the principle of classification Reasoning: Fixing a cut-off date to divide a homogeneous class of pensioners creates a classification. Challenges to such cut-off dates (as seen in the famous D.S. Nakara v. Union of India case) are tested against Article 14 to see if the classification is reasonable and has an intelligible differentia.

Question 99 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General ? Options: (A) After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action (B) After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action (C) After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action (D) None of the above

Answer: (B) After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action Reasoning: As per the procedural escalation mechanism under the newly formulated Uniform Civil Code Rules of Uttarakhand, 2025, if the Registrar fails to act upon or dispose of a legal heir application within 30 days of its receipt, it is automatically forwarded to the Registrar General.

Question 100 of AIBE answer key 2026 :

Regarding the offence of ‘Criminal Conspiracy’ as defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following statements is legally accurate ? Options: (A) The mere agreement between parties is sufficient to constitute the offence if the intended crime is punishable by death or rigorous imprisonment. (B) It is a substantive offence that is legally barred from being charged in conjunction with other substantive crimes. (C) A solitary individual’s mere intention to commit a crime, even without an agreement with others, is sufficient for a conviction. (D) A minimum of five persons must participate to satisfy the legal definition.

Answer: (A) The mere agreement between parties is sufficient to constitute the offence… Reasoning: Section 120A stipulates that when an agreement is to commit an offence, no overt act besides the agreement itself is required to establish criminal conspiracy. Option A reflects the core legal principle that in cases of serious crimes, the “meeting of minds” (the agreement itself) completes the offence.

There you have it! The complete and simplified solution manual for the AIBE 21 exam. Wishing you the best as you prepare or review your scores! Let me know if you need any further insights into specific case laws or statues.